SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 389 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 15-Apr-2025

Which of the following is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure?


A. IRP


B. DRP


C. RPO


D. SDLC





B.
  DRP

Explanation: A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:
A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization’s critical assets and processes.
A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data. A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.
A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss.
References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.

A network administrator is working on a project to deploy a load balancer in the company's cloud environment. Which of the following fundamental security requirements does this project fulfill?


A. Privacy


B. Integrity


C. Confidentiality


D. Availability





D.
  Availability

Explanation: Deploying a load balancer in the company's cloud environment primarily fulfills the fundamental security requirement of availability. A load balancer distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that the service remains available even if some servers fail.
Availability: Ensures that services and resources are accessible when needed, which is directly supported by load balancing.
Privacy: Protects personal and sensitive information from unauthorized access but is not directly related to load balancing.
Integrity: Ensures that data is accurate and has not been tampered with, but load balancing is not primarily focused on data integrity.
Confidentiality: Ensures that information is accessible only to authorized individuals, which is not the primary concern of load balancing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts (Availability).

Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?


A. Insider


B. Unskilled attacker


C. Nation-state


D. Hacktivist





C.
  Nation-state

Explanation: A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation- states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.1, video by Professor Messer.

An engineer moved to another team and is unable to access the new team's shared folders while still being able to access the shared folders from the former team. After opening a ticket, the engineer discovers that the account was never moved to the new group. Which of the following access controls is most likely causing the lack of access?


A. Role-based


B. Discretionary


C. Time of day


D. Least privilege





A.
  Role-based

Explanation: The most likely access control causing the lack of access is role-based access control (RBAC). In RBAC, access to resources is determined by the roles assigned to users. Since the engineer's account was not moved to the new group's role, the engineer does not have the necessary permissions to access the new team's shared folders.
Role-based access control (RBAC): Assigns permissions based on the user's role within the organization. If the engineer's role does not include the new group's permissions, access will be denied.
Discretionary access control (DAC): Access is based on the discretion of the data owner, but it is not typically related to group membership changes.
Time of day: Restricts access based on the time but does not affect group memberships. Least privilege: Ensures users have the minimum necessary permissions, but the issue here is about group membership, not the principle of least privilege.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.6 - Implement and maintain identity and access management (Role-based access control).

A company is implementing a vendor's security tool in the cloud. The security director does not want to manage users and passwords specific to this tool but would rather utilize the company's standard user directory. Which of the following should the company implement?


A. 802.1X


B. SAML


C. RADIUS


D. CHAP





B.
  SAML

Explanation: The company should implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to integrate the vendor's security tool with their existing user directory. SAML is an open standard that allows identity providers (IdP) to pass authorization credentials to service providers (SP), enabling Single Sign-On (SSO). This allows the company to use its existing directory services for authentication, avoiding the need to manage a separate set of user credentials for the new tool.
References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 4: Identity and Access Management, which includes SAML as a key identity federation standard for SSO. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-601): Chapter 8, "Identity and Access Management," details the role of SAML in enabling SSO by utilizing an existing identity provider.

Which of the following is a reason why a forensic specialist would create a plan to preserve data after an modem and prioritize the sequence for performing forensic analysis?


A. Order of volatility


B. Preservation of event logs


C. Chain of custody


D. Compliance with legal hold





A.
  Order of volatility

Explanation: When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it's essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs). The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.

A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, the manager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following security practices helped the manager to identify the attack?


A. End user training


B. Policy review


C. URL scanning


D. Plain text email





A.
  End user training

Explanation: The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training. Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awareness program.
End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including suspicious emails and phishing attempts. Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in identifying specific attacks.
URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.
Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in this case was due to user awareness.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.6 - Implement security awareness practices (End-user training).

A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud- based. Which of the following meets these requirements?


A. Serverless framework


B. Type 1 hvpervisor


C. SD-WAN


D. SDN





A.
  Serverless framework

Explanation: A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server- ide infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.
A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264- 265; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].

A security analyst is assessing several company firewalls. Which of the following cools would The analyst most likely use to generate custom packets to use during the assessment?


A. hping


B. Wireshark


C. PowerShell


D. netstat





A.
  hping

Explanation: Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response.

Which of the following is the best way to secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider?


A. Bollards


B. Access badge


C. Motion sensor


D. Video surveillance





B.
  Access badge

Explanation: To secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider, the best measure is to use an access badge system. Access badges control who can enter restricted areas by verifying their identity and permissions, thereby preventing unauthorized access from insiders.
Access badge: Provides controlled and monitored access to restricted areas, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter.
Bollards: Provide physical barriers to prevent vehicle access but do not prevent unauthorized personnel entry.
Motion sensor: Detects movement but does not control or restrict access.
Video surveillance: Monitors and records activity but does not physically prevent intrusion.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts (Physical security controls).


Page 9 out of 39 Pages
Previous