Which of the following strategies should an organization use to efficiently manage and analyze multiple types of logs?
A. Deploy a SIEM solution
B. Create custom scripts to aggregate and analyze logs
C. Implement EDR technology
D. Install a unified threat management appliance
Explanation: Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization’s infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.
References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
A security analyst is reviewing the source code of an application in order to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities. Which of the following kinds of analysis best describes this review?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. Gap
D. Impact
Explanation: Reviewing the source code of an application to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities is best described as static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the code without executing the program. It focuses on finding potential security issues, coding errors, and vulnerabilities by analyzing the code itself.
Static analysis: Analyzes the source code or compiled code for vulnerabilities without executing the program.
Dynamic analysis: Involves testing and evaluating the program while it is running to identify vulnerabilities.
Gap analysis: Identifies differences between the current state and desired state, often used for compliance or process improvement.
Impact analysis: Assesses the potential effects of changes in a system or process.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3 - Explain various activities associated with vulnerability management (Static analysis).
A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Buffer overflow
C. Jailbreaking
D. Side loading
Explanation: Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Explanation: A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1
One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
A. Virtualization
B. Firmware
C. Application
D. Operating system
Explanation: Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
Which of the following is the best way to provide secure remote access for employees while minimizing the exposure of a company's internal network?
A. VPN
B. LDAP
C. FTP
D. RADIUS
Explanation: A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a secure method to provide employees with remote access to a company's network. It encrypts data, protecting it from interception and ensuring secure communication between the user and the internal network. References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
A security operations center determines that the malicious activity detected on a server is normal. Which of the following activities describes the act of ignoring detected activity in the future?
A. Tuning
B. Aggregating
C. Quarantining
D. Archiving
Explanation: Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope.
Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network. Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
A. Console access
B. Routing protocols
C. VLANs
D. Web-based administration
Explanation: Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods. Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router’s settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs). References: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router’s Security Stinks: Here’s How to Fix It
During a recent company safety stand-down, the cyber-awareness team gave a presentation on the importance of cyber hygiene. One topic the team covered was best practices for printing centers. Which of the following describes an attack method that relates to printing centers?
A. Whaling
B. Credential harvesting
C. Prepending
D. Dumpster diving
Explanation: Dumpster diving is an attack method where attackers search through physical waste, such as discarded documents and printouts, to find sensitive information that has not been properly disposed of. In the context of printing centers, this could involve attackers retrieving printed documents containing confidential data that were improperly discarded without shredding or other secure disposal methods. This emphasizes the importance of proper disposal and physical security measures in cyber hygiene practices.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Physical Security and Cyber Hygiene.
A systems administrator set up a perimeter firewall but continues to notice suspicious connections between internal endpoints. Which of the following should be set up in order to mitigate the threat posed by the suspicious activity?
A. Host-based firewall
B. Web application firewall
C. Access control list
D. Application allow list
Explanation: A host-based firewall is a software application that runs on an individual endpoint and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of rules. A host-based firewall can help to mitigate the threat posed by suspicious connections between internal endpoints by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, port, protocol, or application. A host-based firewall is different from a web application firewall, which is a type of firewall that protects web applications from common web-based attacks, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, and session hijacking. A host-based firewall is also different from an access control list, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources, such as files, folders, printers, or routers. A host- based firewall is also different from an application allow list, which is a list of applications that are authorized to run on an endpoint, preventing unauthorized or malicious applications from executing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 254
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