SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 355 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 16-Dec-2024

An important patch for a critical application has just been released, and a systems administrator is identifying all of the systems requiring the patch. Which of the following must be maintained in order to ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated?


A. Asset inventory


B. Network enumeration


C. Data certification


D. Procurement process





A.
  Asset inventory

Explanation: To ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated, the systems administrator must maintain an accurate asset inventory. This inventory lists all hardware and software assets within the organization, allowing the administrator to identify which systems are affected by the patch and ensuring that none are missed during the update process. Network enumeration is used to discover devices on a network but doesn't track software that requires patching. Data certification and procurement process are unrelated to tracking systems for patching purposes.

An employee recently resigned from a company. The employee was responsible for managing and supporting weekly batch jobs over the past five years. A few weeks after the employee resigned. one of the batch jobs talked and caused a major disruption. Which of the following would work best to prevent this type of incident from reoccurring?


A. Job rotation


B. Retention


C. Outsourcing


D. Separation of duties





A.
  Job rotation

Explanation: Job rotation is a security control that involves regularly moving employees to different roles within an organization. This practice helps prevent incidents where a single employee has too much control or knowledge about a specific job function, reducing the risk of disruption when an employee leaves. It also helps in identifying any hidden issues or undocumented processes that could cause problems after an employee's departure. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight, which includes job rotation as a method to ensure business continuity and reduce risks.

Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk?


A. Risk indicator


B. Risk level


C. Risk score


D. Risk threshold





D.
  Risk threshold

Explanation: Risk threshold is the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity or decision. It is also known as risk appetite or risk tolerance. Risk threshold helps an organization to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management. Risk indicator, risk level, and risk score are different ways of measuring or expressing the likelihood and impact of a risk, but they do not describe the maximum allowance of accepted risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 34; Accepting Risk: Definition, How It Works, and Alternatives

Which of the following security controls is most likely being used when a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network?


A. Deterrent


B. Corrective


C. Compensating


D. Preventive





C.
  Compensating

Explanation: When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used is compensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a security requirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacy server into a private network
serves as a compensating control to protect it from potential vulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.
Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when the primary control is not possible.
Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation. Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.
Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various types of security controls (Compensating controls).

A security analyst finds a rogue device during a monthly audit of current endpoint assets that are connected to the network. The corporate network utilizes 002.1X for access control. To be allowed on the network, a device must have a Known hardware address, and a valid user name and password must be entered in a captive portal. The following is the audit report:



Which of the following is the most likely way a rogue device was allowed to connect?


A. A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.


B. A DMCP failure caused an incorrect IP address to be distributed


C. An administrator bypassed the security controls for testing.


D. DNS hijacking let an attacker intercept the captive portal traffic.





A.
  A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.

Explanation: The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.

Which of the following strategies should an organization use to efficiently manage and analyze multiple types of logs?


A. Deploy a SIEM solution


B. Create custom scripts to aggregate and analyze logs


C. Implement EDR technology


D. Install a unified threat management appliance





A.
  Deploy a SIEM solution

Explanation: Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization’s infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.
References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.

A security analyst is reviewing the source code of an application in order to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities. Which of the following kinds of analysis best describes this review?


A. Dynamic


B. Static


C. Gap


D. Impact





B.
  Static

Explanation: Reviewing the source code of an application to identify misconfigurations and vulnerabilities is best described as static analysis. Static analysis involves examining the code without executing the program. It focuses on finding potential security issues, coding errors, and vulnerabilities by analyzing the code itself.
Static analysis: Analyzes the source code or compiled code for vulnerabilities without executing the program.
Dynamic analysis: Involves testing and evaluating the program while it is running to identify vulnerabilities.
Gap analysis: Identifies differences between the current state and desired state, often used for compliance or process improvement.
Impact analysis: Assesses the potential effects of changes in a system or process.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3 - Explain various activities associated with vulnerability management (Static analysis).

A company is adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the organization addressing?


A. Cross-site scripting


B. Buffer overflow


C. Jailbreaking


D. Side loading





C.
  Jailbreaking

Explanation: Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking allows users to install unauthorized applications, modify system settings, and access root privileges. However, jailbreaking also exposes the device to potential security risks, such as malware, spyware, unauthorized access, data loss, and voided warranty. Therefore, an organization may prohibit employees from jailbreaking their mobile devices to prevent these vulnerabilities and protect the corporate data and network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security, page 507 2

A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?


A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number


B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall


C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server


D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length





B.
  Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall

Explanation: A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1

One of a company's vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update. Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?


A. Virtualization


B. Firmware


C. Application


D. Operating system





B.
  Firmware

Explanation: Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.


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