An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?
A. ACL
B. DLP
C. IDS
D. IPS
Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.
A company hired a security manager from outside the organization to lead security operations. Which of the following actions should the security manager perform first in this new role?
A. Establish a security baseline.
B. Review security policies.
C. Adopt security benchmarks.
D. Perform a user ID revalidation.
Explanation: When a security manager is hired from outside the organization to lead security operations, the first action should be to review the existing security policies.
Understanding the current security policies provides a foundation for identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require improvement, ensuring that the security program aligns with the organization's goals and regulatory requirements.
Review security policies: Provides a comprehensive understanding of the existing security framework, helping the new manager to identify gaps and areas for enhancement. Establish a security baseline: Important but should be based on a thorough understanding of existing policies and practices.
Adopt security benchmarks: Useful for setting standards, but reviewing current policies is a necessary precursor.
Perform a user ID revalidation: Important for ensuring user access is appropriate but not the first step in understanding overall security operations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Summarize elements of effective security governance (Reviewing security policies).
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
A. Approving the change after a successful deployment
B. Having a backout plan when a patch fails
C. Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes
D. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
Explanation: Effective change management procedures include having a backout plan when a patch fails. A backout plan ensures that there are predefined steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new change or patch causes issues, thereby minimizing downtime and mitigating potential negative impacts.
Having a backout plan when a patch fails: Essential for ensuring that changes can be safely reverted in case of problems, maintaining system stability and availability.
Approving the change after a successful deployment: Changes should be approved before deployment, not after.
Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes: While useful for documentation, it is not a comprehensive change management procedure. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates: Bypassing change control can lead to unapproved and potentially disruptive changes.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of change management processes (Backout plan).
A newly identified network access vulnerability has been found in the OS of legacy loT devices. Which of the following would best mitigate this vulnerability quickly?
A. Insurance
B. Patching
C. Segmentation
D. Replacement
Explanation: Segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, each with its own security policies and controls. Segmentation can help mitigate network access vulnerabilities in legacy loT devices by isolating them from other devices and systems, reducing their attack surface and limiting the potential impact of a breach. Segmentation can also improve network performance and efficiency by reducing congestion and traffic. Patching, insurance, and replacement are other possible strategies to deal with network access vulnerabilities, but they may not be feasible or effective in the short term. Patching may not be available or compatible for legacy loT devices, insurance may not cover the costs or damages of a cyberattack, and replacement may be expensive and time-consuming. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143
A security engineer is implementing FDE for all laptops in an organization. Which of the following are the most important for the engineer to consider as part of the planning process? (Select two).
A. Key escrow
B. TPM presence
C. Digital signatures
D. Data tokenization
E. Public key management
F. Certificate authority linking
Explanation: Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes. TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication.
An important patch for a critical application has just been released, and a systems administrator is identifying all of the systems requiring the patch. Which of the following must be maintained in order to ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated?
A. Asset inventory
B. Network enumeration
C. Data certification
D. Procurement process
Explanation: To ensure that all systems requiring the patch are updated, the systems administrator must maintain an accurate asset inventory. This inventory lists all hardware and software assets within the organization, allowing the administrator to identify which systems are affected by the patch and ensuring that none are missed during the update process. Network enumeration is used to discover devices on a network but doesn't track software that requires patching. Data certification and procurement process are unrelated to tracking systems for patching purposes.
An employee recently resigned from a company. The employee was responsible for managing and supporting weekly batch jobs over the past five years. A few weeks after the employee resigned. one of the batch jobs talked and caused a major disruption. Which of the following would work best to prevent this type of incident from reoccurring?
A. Job rotation
B. Retention
C. Outsourcing
D. Separation of duties
Explanation: Job rotation is a security control that involves regularly moving employees to different roles within an organization. This practice helps prevent incidents where a single employee has too much control or knowledge about a specific job function, reducing the risk of disruption when an employee leaves. It also helps in identifying any hidden issues or undocumented processes that could cause problems after an employee's departure. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight, which includes job rotation as a method to ensure business continuity and reduce risks.
Which of the following describes the maximum allowance of accepted risk?
A. Risk indicator
B. Risk level
C. Risk score
D. Risk threshold
Explanation: Risk threshold is the maximum amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept for a given activity or decision. It is also known as risk appetite or risk tolerance. Risk threshold helps an organization to prioritize and allocate resources for risk management. Risk indicator, risk level, and risk score are different ways of measuring or expressing the likelihood and impact of a risk, but they do not describe the maximum allowance of accepted risk. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 34; Accepting Risk: Definition, How It Works, and Alternatives
Which of the following security controls is most likely being used when a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network?
A. Deterrent
B. Corrective
C. Compensating
D. Preventive
Explanation: When a critical legacy server is segmented into a private network, the security control being used is compensating. Compensating controls are alternative measures put in place to satisfy a security requirement when the primary control is not feasible or practical. In this case, segmenting the legacy server into a private network
serves as a compensating control to protect it from potential vulnerabilities that cannot be mitigated directly.
Compensating: Provides an alternative method to achieve the desired security outcome when the primary control is not possible.
Deterrent: Aims to discourage potential attackers but does not directly address segmentation.
Corrective: Used to correct or mitigate the impact of an incident after it has occurred.
Preventive: Aims to prevent security incidents but is not specific to the context of segmentation.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1 - Compare and contrast various types of security controls (Compensating controls).
A security analyst finds a rogue device during a monthly audit of current endpoint assets that are connected to the network. The corporate network utilizes 002.1X for access control. To be allowed on the network, a device must have a Known hardware address, and a valid user name and password must be entered in a captive portal. The following is the audit report:
Which of the following is the most likely way a rogue device was allowed to connect?
A. A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.
B. A DMCP failure caused an incorrect IP address to be distributed
C. An administrator bypassed the security controls for testing.
D. DNS hijacking let an attacker intercept the captive portal traffic.
Explanation: The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.
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