An administrator must replace an expired SSL certificate. Which of the following does the administrator need to create the new SSL certificate?
A. CSR
B. OCSP
C. Key
D. CRL
Explanation: A Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request sent to a certificate authority (CA) to issue an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information like the public key, which will be part of the certificate.
References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content, Security+ SY0-601 Book.
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
A. EAP
B. DHCP
C. IPSec
D. NAT
Explanation: IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
An employee receives a text message from an unknown number claiming to be the company's Chief Executive Officer and asking the employee to purchase several gift cards. Which of the following types of attacks does this describe?
A. Vishing
B. Smishing
C. Pretexting
D. Phishing
Explanation: Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses text messages or common messaging apps to trick victims into clicking on malicious links or providing personal information. The scenario in the question describes a smishing attack that uses pretexting, which is a form of social engineering that involves impersonating someone else to gain trust or access. The unknown number claims to be the company’s CEO and asks the employee to purchase gift cards, which is a common scam tactic. Vishing is a similar type of attack that uses phone calls or voicemails, while phishing is a broader term that covers any email-based attack. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 771; Smishing vs. Phishing: Understanding the Differences2
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware?
A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
C. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
Explanation: Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:
Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies.
References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It
A user would like to install software and features that are not available with a smartphone's default software. Which of the following would allow the user to install unauthorized software and enable new features?
A. SOU
B. Cross-site scripting
C. Jailbreaking
D. Side loading
Explanation: Jailbreaking is the process of removing restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on a smartphone, allowing the user to install unauthorized software and features not available through official app stores. This action typically voids the warranty and can introduce security risks by bypassing built-in protections.
SOU (Statement of Understanding) is not related to modifying devices.
Cross-site scripting is a web-based attack technique, unrelated to smartphone software.
Side loading refers to installing apps from unofficial sources but without necessarily removing built-in restrictions like jailbreaking does.
An enterprise has been experiencing attacks focused on exploiting vulnerabilities in older browser versions with well-known exploits. Which of the following security solutions should be configured to best provide the ability to monitor and block these known signature-based attacks?
A. ACL
B. DLP
C. IDS
D. IPS
Explanation: An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a security device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules or signatures. An IPS can prevent attacks that exploit known vulnerabilities in older browser versions by detecting and dropping the malicious packets before they reach the target system. An IPS can also perform other functions, such as rate limiting, encryption, or redirection.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3: Securing Networks, page 132.
A company hired a security manager from outside the organization to lead security operations. Which of the following actions should the security manager perform first in this new role?
A. Establish a security baseline.
B. Review security policies.
C. Adopt security benchmarks.
D. Perform a user ID revalidation.
Explanation: When a security manager is hired from outside the organization to lead security operations, the first action should be to review the existing security policies.
Understanding the current security policies provides a foundation for identifying strengths, weaknesses, and areas that require improvement, ensuring that the security program aligns with the organization's goals and regulatory requirements.
Review security policies: Provides a comprehensive understanding of the existing security framework, helping the new manager to identify gaps and areas for enhancement. Establish a security baseline: Important but should be based on a thorough understanding of existing policies and practices.
Adopt security benchmarks: Useful for setting standards, but reviewing current policies is a necessary precursor.
Perform a user ID revalidation: Important for ensuring user access is appropriate but not the first step in understanding overall security operations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Summarize elements of effective security governance (Reviewing security policies).
Which of the following describes effective change management procedures?
A. Approving the change after a successful deployment
B. Having a backout plan when a patch fails
C. Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes
D. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates
Explanation: Effective change management procedures include having a backout plan when a patch fails. A backout plan ensures that there are predefined steps to revert the system to its previous state if the new change or patch causes issues, thereby minimizing downtime and mitigating potential negative impacts.
Having a backout plan when a patch fails: Essential for ensuring that changes can be safely reverted in case of problems, maintaining system stability and availability.
Approving the change after a successful deployment: Changes should be approved before deployment, not after.
Using a spreadsheet for tracking changes: While useful for documentation, it is not a comprehensive change management procedure. Using an automatic change control bypass for security updates: Bypassing change control can lead to unapproved and potentially disruptive changes.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.3 - Explain the importance of change management processes (Backout plan).
A newly identified network access vulnerability has been found in the OS of legacy loT devices. Which of the following would best mitigate this vulnerability quickly?
A. Insurance
B. Patching
C. Segmentation
D. Replacement
Explanation: Segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, each with its own security policies and controls. Segmentation can help mitigate network access vulnerabilities in legacy loT devices by isolating them from other devices and systems, reducing their attack surface and limiting the potential impact of a breach. Segmentation can also improve network performance and efficiency by reducing congestion and traffic. Patching, insurance, and replacement are other possible strategies to deal with network access vulnerabilities, but they may not be feasible or effective in the short term. Patching may not be available or compatible for legacy loT devices, insurance may not cover the costs or damages of a cyberattack, and replacement may be expensive and time-consuming. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 142-143
A security engineer is implementing FDE for all laptops in an organization. Which of the following are the most important for the engineer to consider as part of the planning process? (Select two).
A. Key escrow
B. TPM presence
C. Digital signatures
D. Data tokenization
E. Public key management
F. Certificate authority linking
Explanation: Key escrow is a method of storing encryption keys in a secure location, such as a trusted third party or a hardware security module (HSM). Key escrow is important for FDE because it allows the recovery of encrypted data in case of lost or forgotten passwords, device theft, or hardware failure. Key escrow also enables authorized access to encrypted data for legal or forensic purposes. TPM presence is a feature of some laptops that have a dedicated chip for storing encryption keys and other security information. TPM presence is important for FDE because it enhances the security and performance of encryption by generating and protecting the keys within the chip, rather than relying on software or external devices. TPM presence also enables features such as secure boot, remote attestation, and device authentication.
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