SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 389 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 15-Apr-2025

Which of the following best describes configuring devices to log to an off-site location for possible future reference?


A. Log aggregation


B. DLP


C. Archiving


D. SCAP





A.
  Log aggregation

Explanation: Configuring devices to log to an off-site location for possible future reference is best described as log aggregation. Log aggregation involves collecting logs from multiple sources and storing them in a centralized location, often off-site, to ensure they are preserved and can be analyzed in the future. Log aggregation: Centralizes log data from multiple devices, making it easier to analyze and ensuring logs are available for future reference. DLP (Data Loss Prevention): Focuses on preventing unauthorized data transfer and ensuring data security. Archiving: Involves storing data for long-term retention, which could be part of log aggregation but is broader in scope. SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol): A standard for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.4 - Explain security alerting and monitoring concepts and tools (Log aggregation).

Which of the following considerations is the most important for an organization to evaluate as it establishes and maintains a data privacy program?


A. Reporting structure for the data privacy officer


B. Request process for data subject access


C. Role as controller or processor


D. Physical location of the company





C.
  Role as controller or processor

Explanation: The most important consideration when establishing a data privacy program is defining the organization's role as a controller or processor. These roles, as outlined in privacy regulations such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), determine the responsibilities regarding the handling of personal data. A controller is responsible for determining the purpose and means of data processing, while a processor acts on behalf of the controller. This distinction is crucial for compliance with data privacy laws. Reporting structure for the data privacy officer is important, but it is a secondary consideration compared to legal roles. Request process for data subject access is essential for compliance but still depends on the organization's role as controller or processor. Physical location of the company can affect jurisdiction, but the role as controller or processor has a broader and more immediate impact.

Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization's critical systems?


A. Red


B. Blue


C. Purple


D. Yellow





C.
  Purple

Explanation: Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3

Which of the following is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques?


A. Firewall


B. IDS


C. Honeypot


D. Layer 3 switch





C.
  Honeypot

Explanation: A honeypot is most likely to be deployed to obtain and analyze attacker activity and techniques. A honeypot is a decoy system set up to attract attackers, providing an opportunity to study their methods and behaviors in a controlled environment without risking actual systems. Honeypot: A decoy system designed to lure attackers, allowing administrators to observe and analyze attack patterns and techniques. Firewall: Primarily used to block unauthorized access to networks, not for observing attacker behavior. IDS (Intrusion Detection System): Detects and alerts on malicious activity but does not specifically engage attackers to observe their behavior. Layer 3 switch: Used for routing traffic within networks, not for analyzing attacker techniques. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4 - Indicators of malicious activity (Honeypots).

Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?


A. Integrity


B. Availability


C. Confidentiality


D. Non-repudiation





C.
  Confidentiality

Explanation: Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non- repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373

Which of the following would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment?


A. Hot site


B. UPS


C. Snapshots


D. SOAR





B.
  UPS

Explanation: A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) would most likely mitigate the impact of an extended power outage on a company's environment. A UPS provides backup power and ensures that systems continue to run during short-term power outages, giving enough time to perform an orderly shutdown or switch to a longer-term power solution like a generator. Hot site: A fully operational offsite data center that can be used if the primary site becomes unavailable. It’s more suitable for disaster recovery rather than mitigating short-term power outages. UPS: Provides immediate backup power, protecting against data loss and hardware damage during power interruptions. Snapshots: Used for data backup and recovery, not for power outage mitigation. SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response): A platform for automating security operations, not related to power outage mitigation. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 3.4 - Importance of resilience and recovery in security architecture (Power: Generators, UPS).

An organization wants a third-party vendor to do a penetration test that targets a specific device. The organization has provided basic information about the device. Which of the following best describes this kind of penetration test?


A. Partially known environment


B. Unknown environment


C. Integrated


D. Known environment





A.
  Partially known environment

Explanation: A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 10, page 543.

Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response procedure?


A. Playbooks


B. Frameworks


C. Baselines


D. Benchmarks





A.
  Playbooks

Explanation: A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response. Playbooks help ensure that the correct procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation. Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures. Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance. Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response.

An IT manager is putting together a documented plan describing how the organization will keep operating in the event of a global incident. Which of the following plans is the IT manager creating?


A. Business continuity


B. Physical security


C. Change management


D. Disaster recovery





A.
  Business continuity

Explanation: The IT manager is creating a Business Continuity Plan (BCP). A BCP describes how an organization will continue to operate during and after a disaster or global incident. It ensures that critical business functions remain operational despite adverse conditions, with a focus on minimizing downtime and maintaining essential services. Physical security relates to protecting physical assets. Change management ensures changes in IT systems are introduced smoothly, without disrupting operations. Disaster recovery is a subset of business continuity but focuses specifically on recovering from IT-related incidents.

A company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks. Which of the following analysis elements did the company most likely use in making this decision?


A. IMTTR


B. RTO


C. ARO


D. MTBF





C.
  ARO

Explanation: ARO (Annualized Rate of Occurrence) is an analysis element that measures the frequency or likelihood of an event happening in a given year. ARO is often used in risk assessment and management, as it helps to estimate the potential loss or impact of an event. A company can use ARO to calculate the annualized loss expectancy (ALE) of an event, which is the product of ARO and the single loss expectancy (SLE). ALE represents the expected cost of an event per year, and can be used to compare with the cost of implementing a security control or purchasing an insurance policy. The company most likely used ARO in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. The company may have estimated the ARO of ransomware attacks based on historical data, industry trends, or threat intelligence, and found that the ARO was low or negligible. The company may have also calculated the ALE of ransomware attacks, and found that the ALE was lower than the cost of the insurance policy. Therefore, the company decided to reduce the cost of its annual cyber insurance policy by removing the coverage for ransomware attacks, as it deemed the risk to be acceptable or manageable. IMTTR (Incident Management Team Training and Readiness), RTO (Recovery Time Objective), and MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) are not analysis elements that the company most likely used in making the decision to remove the coverage for ransomware attacks from its cyber insurance policy. IMTTR is a process of preparing and training the incident management team to respond effectively to security incidents. IMTTR does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the capability and readiness of the team. RTO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption. RTO does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the availability and continuity of the system or service. MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures of a system or component. MTBF does not measure the frequency or impact of an event, but rather the reliability and performance of the system or component.


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