SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 389 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 15-Apr-2025

During an investigation, an incident response team attempts to understand the source of an incident. Which of the following incident response activities describes this process?


A. Analysis


B. Lessons learned


C. Detection


D. Containment





A.
  Analysis

Explanation: Analysis is the incident response activity that describes the process of understanding the source of an incident. Analysis involves collecting and examining evidence, identifying the root cause, determining the scope and impact, and assessing the threat actor’s motives and capabilities. Analysis helps the incident response team to formulate an appropriate response strategy, as well as to prevent or mitigate future incidents. Analysis is usually performed after detection and before containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.
References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 223. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.2, page 13.

Which of the following would be most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk?


A. ARO


B. RTO


C. RPO


D. ALE


E. SLE





D.
  ALE

Explanation: The Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk. ALE is calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO), which provides an estimate of the annual expected loss due to a specific risk, making it valuable for long-term financial planning and risk management decisions. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

An organization plans to expand its operations internationally and needs to keep data at the new location secure. The organization wants to use the most secure architecture model possible. Which of the following models offers the highest level of security?


A. Cloud-based


B. Peer-to-peer


C. On-premises


D. Hybrid





A.
  Cloud-based

Explanation: Cloud-based models provide strong security with features like encryption, redundancy, and disaster recovery, making it a secure choice for international operations.

Which of the following is used to protect a computer from viruses, malware, and Trojans being installed and moving laterally across the network?


A. IDS


B. ACL


C. EDR


D. NAC





C.
  EDR

Explanation: Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. EDR can help to detect and prevent malicious software, such as viruses, malware, and Trojans, from infecting the endpoints and spreading across the network. EDR can also provide visibility and response capabilities to contain and remediate threats. EDR is different from IDS, which is a network-based technology that monitors and alerts on network traffic anomalies. EDR is also different from ACL, which is a list of rules that control the access to network resources. EDR is also different from NAC, which is a technology that enforces policies on the network access of devices based on their identity and compliance status. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 2561

A business uses Wi-Fi with content filleting enabled. An employee noticed a coworker accessed a blocked sue from a work computer and repotted the issue. While Investigating the issue, a security administrator found another device providing internet access to certain employees. Which of the following best describes the security risk?


A. The host-based security agent Is not running on all computers.


B. A rogue access point Is allowing users to bypass controls.


C. Employees who have certain credentials are using a hidden SSID.


D. A valid access point is being jammed to limit availability.





B.
  A rogue access point Is allowing users to bypass controls.

Explanation: The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

A business needs a recovery site but does not require immediate failover. The business also wants to reduce the workload required to recover from an outage. Which of the following recovery sites is the best option?


A. Hot


B. Cold


C. Warm


D. Geographically dispersed





C.
  Warm

Explanation: A warm site is the best option for a business that does not require immediate failover but wants to reduce the workload required for recovery. A warm site has some pre-installed equipment and data, allowing for quicker recovery than a cold site, but it still requires some setup before becoming fully operational. Hot sites provide immediate failover but are more expensive and require constant maintenance. Cold sites require significant time and effort to get up and running after an outage. Geographically dispersed sites refer to a specific location strategy rather than the readiness of the recovery site.

Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to be hired by a foreign government to attack critical systems located in other countries?


A. Hacktivist


B. Whistleblower


C. Organized crime


D. Unskilled attacker





C.
  Organized crime

Explanation: Organized crime is a type of threat actor that is motivated by financial gain and often operates across national borders. Organized crime groups may be hired by foreign governments to conduct cyberattacks on critical systems located in other countries, such as power grids, military networks, or financial institutions. Organized crime groups have the resources, skills, and connections to carry out sophisticated and persistent attacks that can cause significant damage and disruption12. References = 1: Threat Actors - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.1 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide

A visitor plugs a laptop into a network jack in the lobby and is able to connect to the company's network. Which of the following should be configured on the existing network infrastructure to best prevent this activity?


A. Port security


B. Web application firewall


C. Transport layer security


D. Virtual private network





A.
  Port security

Explanation: Port security is the best solution to prevent unauthorized devices, like a visitor's laptop, from connecting to the company’s network. Port security can limit the number of devices that can connect to a network switch port and block unauthorized MAC addresses, effectively stopping unauthorized access attempts.
Web application firewall (WAF) protects against web-based attacks, not unauthorized network access.
Transport Layer Security (TLS) ensures encrypted communication but does not manage physical network access.
Virtual Private Network (VPN) secures remote connections but does not control access through physical network ports.

After performing an assessment, an analyst wants to provide a risk rating for the findings. Which of the following concepts should most likely be considered when calculating the ratings?


A. Owners and thresholds


B. Impact and likelihood


C. Appetite and tolerance


D. Probability and exposure factor





B.
  Impact and likelihood

Explanation: When calculating risk ratings, the concepts of impact and likelihood are most likely to be considered. Risk assessment typically involves evaluating the potential impact of a threat (how severe the consequences would be if the threat materialized) and the likelihood of the threat occurring (how probable it is that the threat will occur). Impact: Measures the severity of the consequences if a particular threat exploits a vulnerability. It considers factors such as financial loss, reputational damage, and operational disruption. Likelihood: Measures the probability of a threat exploiting a vulnerability. This can be based on historical data, current threat landscape, and expert judgment. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.2 - Risk management process (Risk assessment: impact and likelihood).

Which of the following is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user?


A. OCSP


B. CSR


C. CA


D. CRC





A.
  OCSP

Explanation: OCSP stands for Online Certificate Status Protocol. It is a protocol that allows applications to check the revocation status of a certificate in real-time. It works by sending a query to an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains a database of revoked certificates. The OCSP responder returns a response that indicates whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or unknown. OCSP is faster and more efficient than downloading and parsing Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are large files that contain the serial numbers of all revoked certificates issued by a Certificate Authority (CA). References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 337 1


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