SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 355 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 27-Dec-2024

Which of the following is classified as high availability in a cloud environment?


A. Access broker


B. Cloud HSM


C. WAF


D. Load balancer





D.
  Load balancer

Explanation: In a cloud environment, high availability is typically ensured through the use of a load balancer. A load balancer distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers, ensuring that no single server becomes overwhelmed and that services remain available even if one or more servers fail. This setup enhances the reliability and availability of applications. Load balancer: Ensures high availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers or instances, preventing overload and ensuring continuous availability. Access broker: Typically refers to a service that facilitates secure access to resources, not directly related to high availability. Cloud HSM (Hardware Security Module): Provides secure key management in the cloud but does not specifically ensure high availability.
WAF (Web Application Firewall): Protects web applications by filtering and monitoring HTTP traffic but is not primarily focused on ensuring high availability.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.4 - Security operations (Load balancing for high availability).

A security analyst is investigating an alert that was produced by endpoint protection software. The analyst determines this event was a false positive triggered by an employee who attempted to download a file. Which of the following is the most likely reason the download was blocked?


A. A misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software


B. A zero-day vulnerability in the file


C. A supply chain attack on the endpoint protection vendor


D. Incorrect file permissions





A.
  A misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software

Explanation: The most likely reason the download was blocked, resulting in a false positive, is a misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software. False positives occur when legitimate actions are incorrectly identified as threats due to incorrect settings or overly aggressive rules in the security software.
Misconfiguration in the endpoint protection software: Common cause of false positives, where legitimate activities are flagged incorrectly due to improper settings.
Zero-day vulnerability: Refers to previously unknown vulnerabilities, which are less likely to be associated with a false positive.
Supply chain attack: Involves compromising the software supply chain, which is a broader and more severe issue than a simple download being blocked.
Incorrect file permissions: Would prevent access to files but not typically cause an alert in endpoint protection software.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.3 - Explain various activities associated with vulnerability management (False positives).

Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email address.”
Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).


A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.


B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.


C. Issue a general email warning to the company.


D. Have the CEO change phone numbers.


E. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.


F. Implement mobile device management.





B.
  Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.

C.
  Issue a general email warning to the company.

Explanation: This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money. References = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses

A website user is locked out of an account after clicking an email link and visiting a different website Web server logs show the user's password was changed, even though the user did not change the password. Which of the following is the most likely cause?


A. Cross-sue request forgery


B. Directory traversal


C. ARP poisoning


D. SQL injection





A.
  Cross-sue request forgery

Explanation: The scenario describes a situation where a user unknowingly triggers an unwanted action, such as changing their password, by clicking a malicious link. This is indicative of a Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) attack, where an attacker tricks the user into executing actions they did not intend to perform on a web application in which they are authenticated. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of web application security and common attack vectors like CSRF.

Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?


A. Key stretching


B. Data masking


C. Steganography


D. Salting





D.
  Salting

Explanation: Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks.
References = Passwords technical overview Encryption, hashing, salting – what’s the difference? Salt (cryptography)

Sine© a recent upgrade (o a WLAN infrastructure, several mobile users have been unable to access the internet from the lobby. The networking team performs a heat map survey of the building and finds several WAPs in the area. The WAPs are using similar frequencies with high power settings. Which of the following installation considerations should the security team evaluate next?


A. Channel overlap


B. Encryption type


C. New WLAN deployment


D. WAP placement





A.
  Channel overlap

Explanation: When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations.

An organization disabled unneeded services and placed a firewall in front of a business- critical legacy system. Which of the following best describes the actions taken by the organization?


A. Exception


B. Segmentation


C. Risk transfer


D. Compensating controls





D.
  Compensating controls

Explanation: Compensating controls are alternative security measures that are implemented when the primary controls are not feasible, cost-effective, or sufficient to mitigate the risk. In this case, the organization used compensating controls to protect the legacy system from potential attacks by disabling unneeded services and placing a firewall in front of it. This reduced the attack surface and the likelihood of exploitation.
References: Official CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), page 29 Security Controls - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 1.1 1

A company most likely is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will be classified? (Select two).


A. Private


B. Confidential


C. Public


D. Operational


E. Urgent


F. Restricted





B.
  Confidential

F.
  Restricted

Explanation: When a company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare, the data will most likely be classified as Confidential and Restricted.
Confidential: Indicates that the data is sensitive and access is limited to authorized individuals. This classification is typically used for information that could cause harm if disclosed.
Restricted: Indicates that access to the data is highly controlled and limited to those with a specific need to know. This classification is often used for highly sensitive information that requires stringent protection measures. Private: Generally refers to personal information that is not meant to be publicly accessible.
Public: Information that is intended for public access and does not require protection. Operational: Relates to day-to-day operations, but not necessarily to data classification. Urgent: Refers to the priority of action rather than data classification.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Security program management and oversight (Data classification).

A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?


A. Application


B. IPS/IDS


C. Network


D. Endpoint





D.
  Endpoint

Explanation: An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics.
Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.

Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).


A. Ease of recovery


B. Ability to patch


C. Physical isolation


D. Responsiveness


E. Attack surface


F. Extensible authentication





A.
  Ease of recovery

E.
  Attack surface

Explanation: A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption. A high-availability network must consider the following factors12:
Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.
Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening.
The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:
Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to patch is important for maintaining the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources. Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network’s performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for high- vailability network design.
Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA ecurity+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer.


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