SY0-701 Exam Questions

Total 389 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 15-Apr-2025

A company most likely is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare. Which of the following describes how this data will be classified? (Select two).


A. Private


B. Confidential


C. Public


D. Operational


E. Urgent


F. Restricted





B.
  Confidential

F.
  Restricted

Explanation: When a company is developing a critical system for the government and storing project information on a fileshare, the data will most likely be classified as Confidential and Restricted.
Confidential: Indicates that the data is sensitive and access is limited to authorized individuals. This classification is typically used for information that could cause harm if disclosed.
Restricted: Indicates that access to the data is highly controlled and limited to those with a specific need to know. This classification is often used for highly sensitive information that requires stringent protection measures. Private: Generally refers to personal information that is not meant to be publicly accessible.
Public: Information that is intended for public access and does not require protection. Operational: Relates to day-to-day operations, but not necessarily to data classification. Urgent: Refers to the priority of action rather than data classification.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1 - Security program management and oversight (Data classification).

A security analyst is reviewing alerts in the SIEM related to potential malicious network traffic coming from an employee’s corporate laptop. The security analyst has determined that additional data about the executable running on the machine is necessary to continue the investigation. Which of the following logs should the analyst use as a data source?


A. Application


B. IPS/IDS


C. Network


D. Endpoint





D.
  Endpoint

Explanation: An endpoint log is a file that contains information about the activities and events that occur on an end-user device, such as a laptop, desktop, tablet, or smartphone. Endpoint logs can provide valuable data for security analysts, such as the processes running on the device, the network connections established, the files accessed or modified, the user actions performed, and the applications installed or updated. Endpoint logs can also record the details of any executable files running on the device, such as the name, path, size, hash, signature, and permissions of the executable.
An application log is a file that contains information about the events that occur within a software application, such as errors, warnings, transactions, or performance metrics.
Application logs can help developers and administrators troubleshoot issues, optimize performance, and monitor user behavior. However, application logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are malicious or unknown.
An IPS/IDS log is a file that contains information about the network traffic that is monitored and analyzed by an intrusion prevention system (IPS) or an intrusion detection system (IDS). IPS/IDS logs can help security analysts identify and block potential attacks, such as exploit attempts, denial-of-service (DoS) attacks, or malicious scans. However, IPS/IDS logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are encrypted, obfuscated, or use legitimate protocols.
A network log is a file that contains information about the network activity and communication that occurs between devices, such as IP addresses, ports, protocols, packets, or bytes. Network logs can help security analysts understand the network topology, traffic patterns, and bandwidth usage. However, network logs may not provide enough information about the executable files running on the device, especially if they are hidden, spoofed, or use proxy servers.
Therefore, the best log type to use as a data source for additional information about the executable running on the machine is the endpoint log, as it can provide the most relevant and detailed data about the executable file and its behavior.

A security analyst developed a script to automate a trivial and repeatable task. Which of the following best describes the benefits of ensuring other team members understand how the script works?


A. To reduce implementation cost


B. To identify complexity


C. To remediate technical debt


D. To prevent a single point of failure





D.
  To prevent a single point of failure

Explanation: Ensuring that other team members understand how a script works is essential to prevent a single point of failure. If only one person knows how the script operates, the organization risks being unable to maintain or troubleshoot it if that person is unavailable. Sharing knowledge ensures continuity and reduces dependence on one individual.
Reducing implementation cost and remediating technical debt are secondary considerations in this context. Identifying complexity is important, but the main benefit is to avoid a single point of failure.

Which of the following is die most important security concern when using legacy systems to provide production service?


A. Instability


B. Lack of vendor support


C. Loss of availability


D. Use of insecure protocols





B.
  Lack of vendor support

Explanation: The most important security concern when using legacy systems is the lack of vendor support. Without support from the vendor, systems may not receive critical security patches and updates, leaving them vulnerable to exploitation. This lack of support can result in increased risk of security breaches, as vulnerabilities discovered in the software may never be addressed.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the context of risk management and the challenges posed by legacy systems.

Two companies are in the process of merging. The companies need to decide how to standardize their information security programs. Which of the following would best align the security programs?


A. Shared deployment of CIS baselines


B. Joint cybersecurity best practices


C. Both companies following the same CSF


D. Assessment of controls in a vulnerability report





C.
  Both companies following the same CSF

Explanation: A Cybersecurity Framework (CSF) provides a structured approach to standardizing and aligning security programs across different organizations. By both companies adopting the same CSF, they can ensure that their security measures, policies, and practices are consistent, which is essential during a merger when aligning two different security programs. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course discusses the importance of adopting standardized cybersecurity frameworks (CSF) for aligning security programs during mergers and acquisitions.

Which of the following tasks is typically included in the BIA process?


A. Estimating the recovery time of systems


B. Identifying the communication strategy


C. Evaluating the risk management plan


D. Establishing the backup and recovery procedures


E. Developing the incident response plan





A.
  Estimating the recovery time of systems

Explanation: Estimating the recovery time of systems is a task typically included in the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) process. BIA involves identifying the critical functions of a business and determining the impact of a disruption. This includes estimating how long it will take to recover systems and resume normal operations.
Estimating the recovery time of systems: A key component of BIA, which helps in understanding the time needed to restore systems and services after a disruption. Identifying the communication strategy: Typically part of the incident response plan, not BIA.
Evaluating the risk management plan: Part of risk management, not specifically BIA. Establishing the backup and recovery procedures: Important for disaster recovery, not directly part of BIA.
Developing the incident response plan: Focuses on responding to security incidents, not on the impact analysis.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.2 - Risk management process (Business Impact Analysis - BIA).

A bank set up a new server that contains customers' Pll. Which of the following should the bank use to make sure the sensitive data is not modified?


A. Full disk encryption


B. Network access control


C. File integrity monitoring


D. User behavior analytics





C.
  File integrity monitoring

Explanation: To ensure that sensitive data, such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII), is not modified, the bank should implement file integrity monitoring (FIM). FIM tracks changes to files and provides alerts if unauthorized modifications are detected, ensuring data integrity. Full disk encryption protects data at rest but does not prevent or monitor modifications. Network access control (NAC) manages access to the network but doesn't monitor file changes. User behavior analytics (UBA) detects suspicious user activities but is not focused on file integrity.

A company is currently utilizing usernames and passwords, and it wants to integrate an MFA method that is seamless, can Integrate easily into a user's workflow, and can utilize employee-owned devices. Which of the following will meet these requirements?


A. Push notifications


B. Phone call


C. Smart card


D. Offline backup codes





A.
  Push notifications

Explanation: Push notifications offer a seamless and user-friendly method of multi-factor authentication (MFA) that can easily integrate into a user’s workflow. This method leverages employee-owned devices, like smartphones, to approve authentication requests through a push notification. It's convenient, quick, and doesn't require the user to input additional codes, making it a preferred choice for seamless integration with existing workflows. References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.

A systems administrator is working on a solution with the following requirements:

• Provide a secure zone.
• Enforce a company-wide access control policy.
• Reduce the scope of threats.

Which of the following is the systems administrator setting up?


A. Zero Trust


B. AAA


C. Non-repudiation


D. CIA





A.
   Zero Trust

Explanation: Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network perimeter and requires continuous verification of identity and permissions. Zero Trust can provide a secure zone by isolating and protecting sensitive data and resources from unauthorized access. Zero Trust can also enforce a company- wide access control policy by applying the principle of least privilege and granular segmentation for users, devices, and applications. Zero Trust can reduce the scope of threats by preventing lateral movement and minimizing the attack surface.
References: 5: This source explains the concept and benefits of Zero Trust security and how it differs from traditional security models. 8: This source provides an overview of Zero Trust identity security and how it can help verify the identity and integrity of users and devices.

After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report: Server:192.168.14.6 Service: Telnet

Port: 23 Protocol: TCP Status: Open Severity: High
Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol

A security analyst performs the following test:

nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 —script telnet-encryption PORT STATE SERVICE REASON
23/tcp open telnet syn-ack I telnet encryption:
| _ Telnet server supports encryption

Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?


A. It is a false positive.


B. A rescan is required.


C. It is considered noise.


D. Compensating controls exist.





A.
  It is a false positive.

Explanation: A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?


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