Which of the following is a reason why a forensic specialist would create a plan to preserve data after an modem and prioritize the sequence for performing forensic analysis?
A. Order of volatility
B. Preservation of event logs
C. Chain of custody
D. Compliance with legal hold
Explanation: When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it's essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs). The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.
A manager receives an email that contains a link to receive a refund. After hovering over the link, the manager notices that the domain's URL points to a suspicious link. Which of the following security practices helped the manager to identify the attack?
A. End user training
B. Policy review
C. URL scanning
D. Plain text email
Explanation: The security practice that helped the manager identify the suspicious link is end-user training. Training users to recognize phishing attempts and other social engineering attacks, such as hovering over links to check the actual URL, is a critical component of an organization's security awareness program.
End user training: Educates employees on how to identify and respond to security threats, including suspicious emails and phishing attempts.
Policy review: Ensures that policies are understood and followed but does not directly help in identifying specific attacks.
URL scanning: Automatically checks URLs for threats, but the manager identified the issue manually.
Plain text email: Ensures email content is readable without executing scripts, but the identification in this case was due to user awareness.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 5.6 - Implement security awareness practices (End-user training).
A systems administrator is looking for a low-cost application-hosting solution that is cloud- based. Which of the following meets these requirements?
A. Serverless framework
B. Type 1 hvpervisor
C. SD-WAN
D. SDN
Explanation: A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server- ide infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.
A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.
SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.
SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264- 265; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].
A security analyst is assessing several company firewalls. Which of the following cools would The analyst most likely use to generate custom packets to use during the assessment?
A. hping
B. Wireshark
C. PowerShell
D. netstat
Explanation: Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response.
Which of the following is the best way to secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider?
A. Bollards
B. Access badge
C. Motion sensor
D. Video surveillance
Explanation: To secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider, the best measure is to use an access badge system. Access badges control who can enter restricted areas by verifying their identity and permissions, thereby preventing unauthorized access from insiders.
Access badge: Provides controlled and monitored access to restricted areas, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter.
Bollards: Provide physical barriers to prevent vehicle access but do not prevent unauthorized personnel entry.
Motion sensor: Detects movement but does not control or restrict access.
Video surveillance: Monitors and records activity but does not physically prevent intrusion.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts (Physical security controls).
Which of the following would be the best way to handle a critical business application that is running on a legacy server?
A. Segmentation
B. Isolation
C. Hardening
D. Decommissioning
Explanation: A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.
One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:
Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Architecture and Design, Section 3.2: Secure System Design, Page 133 1; CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.2: Explain the importance of secure system design, Subobjective: Legacy systems 2
A security analyst is investigating an application server and discovers that software on the server is behaving abnormally. The software normally runs batch jobs locally and does not generate traffic, but the process is now generating outbound traffic over random high ports. Which of the following vulnerabilities has likely been exploited in this software?
A. Memory injection
B. Race condition
C. Side loading
D. SQL injection
Explanation: Memory injection vulnerabilities allow unauthorized code or commands to be executed within a software program, leading to abnormal behavior such as generating outbound traffic over random high ports. This issue often arises from software not properly validating or encoding input, which can be exploited by attackers to inject malicious code. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.
Which of the following is the most likely to be used to document risks, responsible parties, and thresholds?
A. Risk tolerance
B. Risk transfer
C. Risk register
D. Risk analysis
Explanation: A risk register is a document that records and tracks the risks associated with a project, system, or organization. A risk register typically includes information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk probability, the risk impact, the risk level, the risk response strategy, and the risk status. A risk register can help identify, assess, prioritize, monitor, and control risks, as well as communicate them to relevant stakeholders. A risk register can also help document the risk tolerance and thresholds of an organization, which are the acceptable levels of risk exposure and the criteria for escalating or mitigating risks. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, plans, and procedures related to organizational security. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 5: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 211. CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Chapter 2: Risk Management, page 33. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 4.
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?
A. To track the status of patching installations
B. To find shadow IT cloud deployments
C. To continuously the monitor hardware inventory
D. To hunt for active attackers in the network
Explanation: Running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints is primarily done to track the status of patching installations. These scans help identify any missing security patches or vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Keeping the endpoints up-to-date with the latest patches is critical for maintaining security.
Finding shadow IT cloud deployments and monitoring hardware inventory are better achieved through other tools.
Hunting for active attackers would typically involve more real-time threat detection methods than daily vulnerability scans.
Which of the following data roles is responsible for identifying risks and appropriate access to data?
A. Owner
B. Custodian
C. Steward
D. Controller
Explanation: The data owner is the role responsible for identifying risks to data and determining who should have access to that data. The owner has the authority to make decisions about the protection and usage of the data, including setting access controls and ensuring that appropriate security measures are in place.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of data governance and the roles and responsibilities associated with data management.
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