An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
A. Secured zones
B. Subject role
C. Adaptive identity
D. Threat scope reduction
Secured zones are a key component of the Zero Trust data plane, which is the layer where data is stored, processed, and transmitted. Secured zones are logical or physical segments of the network that isolate data and resources based on their sensitivity and risk. Secured zones enforce granular policies and controls to prevent unauthorized access and lateral movement within the network1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 255.
Which of the following enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data?
A. Cross-site scripting
B. Side loading
C. Buffer overflow
D. SQL injection
SQL injection is a type of attack that enables the use of an input field to run commands that can view or manipulate data in a database. SQL stands for Structured Query Language, which is a language used to communicate with databases. By injecting malicious SQL statements into an input field, an attacker can bypass authentication, access sensitive information, modify or delete data, or execute commands on the server. SQL injection is one of the most common and dangerous web application vulnerabilities.
References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 195. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 8.
A company’s legal department drafted sensitive documents in a SaaS application and wants to ensure the documents cannot be accessed by individuals in high-risk countries. Which of the following is the most effective way to limit this access?
A. Data masking
B. Encryption
C. Geolocation policy
D. Data sovereignty regulation
A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first?
A. Air gap the system.
B. Move the system to a different network segment.
C. Create a change control request.
D. Apply the patch to the system.
A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process, the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches.
References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.
A technician is opening ports on a firewall for a new system being deployed and supported by a SaaS provider. Which of the following is a risk in the new system?
A. Default credentials
B. Non-segmented network
C. Supply chain vendor
D. Vulnerable software
A supply chain vendor is a third-party entity that provides goods or services to an organization, such as a SaaS provider. A supply chain vendor can pose a risk to the new system if the vendor has poor security practices, breaches, or compromises that could affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the system or its data. The organization should perform due diligence and establish a service level agreement with the vendor to mitigate this risk. The other options are not specific to the scenario of using a SaaS provider, but rather general risks that could apply to any system.
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
A. EAP
B. DHCP
C. IPSec
D. NAT
IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
A systems administrator is creating a script that would save time and prevent human error when performing account creation for a large number of end users. Which of the following would be a good use case for this task?
A. Off-the-shelf software
B. Orchestration
C. Baseline
D. Policy enforcement
Orchestration is the process of automating multiple tasks across different systems and applications. It can help save time and reduce human error by executing predefined workflows and scripts. In this case, the systems administrator can use orchestration to create accounts for a large number of end users without having to manually enter their information and assign permissions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457 1
Which of the following is used to add extra complexity before using a one-way data transformation algorithm?
A. Key stretching
B. Data masking
C. Steganography
D. Salting
Salting is the process of adding extra random data to a password or other data before applying a one-way data transformation algorithm, such as a hash function. Salting increases the complexity and randomness of the input data, making it harder for attackers to guess or crack the original data using precomputed tables or brute force methods. Salting also helps prevent identical passwords from producing identical hash values, which could reveal the passwords to attackers who have access to the hashed data. Salting is commonly used to protect passwords stored in databases or transmitted over networks. References =
Passwords technical overview
Encryption, hashing, salting – what’s the difference?
Salt (cryptography)
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool:
The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed. The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?
A. The end user changed the file permissions
B. A cryptographic collision was detected
C.
A snapshot of the file system was taken.
D. A rootkit was deployed.
A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or reinstalling the OS. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 147. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 9.
During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address:
10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization’s network. Which of the following fulfills this request?
A. access-list inbound deny ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
B. access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
C. access-list inbound permit ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
D. access-list inbound permit ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from accessing the organization’s network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be 10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any.
Therefore, the correct firewall rule is: access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0 This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action, the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination addresses reversed.
References = Firewall Rules – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501, Understanding Firewall Rules – CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall – CompTIA A+ 220-1102 – 1.6.
Page 1 out of 36 Pages |