Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe?
A. GDPR
B. SCADA
C. SAML
D. PCI DSS
Explanation:
Definition of GDPR:
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.
Scope and Objectives:
GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.
It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.
Comparison with Other Options:
SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.
SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.
PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.
Key Provisions:
GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards.
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
A. Neighbor adjacency
B. Link state flooding
C. Administrative distance
D. Hop count
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
Verification:
After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
References:
CompTIA Network+ guide explains the concept of administrative distance and its use in static routing configuration (see page Ref 9†Basic Configuration Commands).
Which of the following are the best device-hardening techniques for network security? (Select two).
A. Disabling unused ports
B. Performing regular scanning of unauthorized devices
C. Monitoring system logs for irregularities
D. Enabling logical security such as SSO
E. Changing default passwords
F. Ensuring least privilege concepts are in place
Explanation: Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.
Which of the following network devices converts wireless signals to electronic signals?
A. Router
B. Firewall
C. Access point
D. Load balancer
Explanation:
Role of an Access Point (AP):
Wireless to Wired Conversion: An access point (AP) is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi. It converts wireless signals (radio waves) into electronic signals that can be understood by wired network devices.
Functionality:
Signal Conversion: The AP receives wireless signals from devices such as laptops, smartphones, and tablets, converts them into electronic signals, and transmits them over the wired network.
Connectivity: APs provide a bridge between wireless and wired segments of the network, enabling seamless communication.
Comparison with Other Devices:
Router: Directs traffic between different networks and may include built-in AP functionality but is not primarily responsible for converting wireless to electronic signals.
Firewall: Protects the network by controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules, not involved in signal conversion.
Load Balancer: Distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and performance, not involved in signal conversion.
Deployment:
APs are commonly used in environments where wireless connectivity is needed, such as offices, homes, and public spaces. They enhance mobility and provide flexible network access.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and access points.
A network engineer performed a migration to a new mail server. The engineer changed the MX record, verified the change was accurate, and confirmed the new mail server was reachable via the IP address in the A record. However, users are not receiving email. Which of the following should the engineer have done to prevent the issue from occurring?
A. Change the email client configuration to match the MX record.
B. Reduce the TTL record prior to the MX record change.
C. Perform a DNS zone transfer prior to the MX record change.
D. Update the NS record to reflect the IP address change.
Explanation:
Understanding TTL (Time to Live):
TTL is a value in a DNS record that tells how long that record should be cached by DNS servers and clients. A higher TTL value means that the record will be cached longer, reducing the load on the DNS server but delaying the propagation of changes.
Impact of TTL on DNS Changes:
When an MX record change is made, it may take time for the change to propagate across all DNS servers due to the TTL setting. If the TTL is high, old DNS information might still be cached, leading to email being directed to the old server.
Best Practice Before Making DNS Changes:
To ensure that changes to DNS records propagate quickly, it is recommended to reduce the TTL value to a lower value (such as 300 seconds or 5 minutes) well in advance of making the changes. This ensures that any cached records will expire quickly, and the new records will be used sooner.
Verification of DNS Changes:
After reducing the TTL and making the change to the MX record, it is important to verify the propagation using tools like dig or nslookup.
Comparison with Other Options:
Change the email client configuration to match the MX record: Email clients generally do not need to match the MX record directly; they usually connect to a specific mail server specified in their settings.
Perform a DNS zone transfer prior to the MX record change: DNS zone transfers are used to replicate DNS records between DNS servers, but they are not related to the propagation of individual record changes.
Update the NS record to reflect the IP address change: NS records specify the DNS servers for a domain and are not related to MX record changes.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and DNS best practices.
An IT manager needs to connect ten sites in a mesh network. Each needs to be secured with reduced provisioning time. Which of the following technologies will best meet this requirement?
A. SD-WAN
B. VXLAN
C. VPN
D. NFV
Explanation:
Definition of SD-WAN:
Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is a technology that simplifies the management and operation of a WAN by decoupling the networking hardware from its control mechanism. It allows for centralized management and enhanced security.
Benefits of SD-WAN:
Reduced Provisioning Time: SD-WAN enables quick and easy deployment of new sites with centralized control and automation.
Security: Incorporates advanced security features such as encryption, secure tunneling, and integrated firewalls.
Scalability: Easily scales to accommodate additional sites and bandwidth requirements.
Comparison with Other Technologies:
VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN): Primarily used for network virtualization within data centers.
VPN (Virtual Private Network): Provides secure connections but does not offer the centralized management and provisioning efficiency of SD-WAN.
NFV (Network Functions Virtualization): Virtualizes network services but does not specifically address WAN management and provisioning.
Implementation:
SD-WAN solutions are implemented by deploying edge devices at each site and connecting them to a central controller. This allows for dynamic routing, traffic management, and security policy enforcement.
References:
CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking solution guides.
Following a fire in a data center, the cabling was replaced. Soon after, an administrator notices network issues. Which of the following are the most likely causes of the network issues? (Select two).
A. The switches are not the correct voltage.
B. The HVAC system was not verified as fully functional after the fire.
C. The VLAN database was not deleted before the equipment was brought back online.
D. The RJ45 cables were replaced with unshielded cables.
E. The wrong transceiver type was used for the new termination.
F. The new RJ45 cables are a higher category than the old ones.
Explanation:
Unshielded cables (D) are more prone to interference and may not be suitable for certain environments, especially after a fire where interference could be heightened.
Using the wrong transceiver (E) for new terminations can lead to compatibility issues, causing network failures.
A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use?
A. 724
B. /26
C. /28
D. /30
Explanation: Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles.
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology would be next after putting preventive measures in place?
A. Implement the solution.
B. Verify system functionality.
C. Establish a plan of action.
D. Test the theory to determine cause.
Explanation: Explanation: After implementing a solution and putting preventive measures in place, the next step is to verify that the system is functioning correctly. This ensures that the issue has been fully resolved.
Which of the following is used to describe the average duration of an outage for a specific service?
A. RPO
B. MTTR
C. RTO
D. MTBF
Explanation: Explanation: MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) is the average time it takes to repair a system or service after a failure. It helps in measuring the downtime and planning recovery processes.
Page 8 out of 24 Pages |
Previous |