N10-009 Exam Questions

Total 240 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 15-Apr-2025

A network administrator is implementing security zones for each department. Which of the following should the administrator use to accomplish this task?


A. ACLs


B. Port security


C. Content filtering


D. NAC





A.
  ACLs

Explanation:
Understanding ACLs:
Access Control Lists (ACLs): A set of rules used to control network traffic and restrict access to network resources by filtering packets based on IP addresses, protocols, or ports.

Implementing Security Zones:

Defining Zones: ACLs can be used to create security zones by applying specific rules to different departments, ensuring that only authorized traffic is allowed between these zones.
Control Traffic: ACLs control inbound and outbound traffic at network boundaries, enforcing security policies and preventing unauthorized access.

Comparison with Other Options:

Port Security: Limits the number of devices that can connect to a switch port, preventing MAC address flooding attacks, but not used for defining security zones.
Content Filtering: Blocks or allows access to specific content based on predefined policies, typically used for web filtering rather than network segmentation.
NAC (Network Access Control): Controls access to the network based on the security posture of devices but does not define security zones.

Implementation Steps:

Define ACL rules based on the requirements of each department.
Apply these rules to the appropriate network interfaces or firewall policies to segment the network into security zones.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security and access control methods.

Which of the following ports is used for secure email?


A. 25


B. 110


C. 143


D. 587





D.
  587

Explanation:
Port 587 is used for secure email submission. This port is designated for message submission by mail clients to mail servers using the SMTP protocol, typically with STARTTLS for encryption.
Port 25: Traditionally used for SMTP relay, but not secure and often blocked by ISPs for outgoing mail due to spam concerns.
Port 110: Used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3), not typically secured.
Port 143: Used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol), which can be secured with STARTTLS or SSL/TLS.
Port 587: Specifically used for authenticated email submission (SMTP) with encryption, ensuring secure transmission of email from clients to servers.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses email protocols and ports, including secure email transmission.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on securing email communications and the use of appropriate ports.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains email protocols, ports, and security considerations for email transmission.

Which of the following is the correct order of components in a bottom-up approach for the three-tier hierarchical model?


A. Access, distribution, and core


B. Core, root, and distribution


C. Core, spine, and leaf


D. Access, core, and roof





A.
  Access, distribution, and core

Explanation: The three-tier hierarchical model in network design consists of three layers: access, distribution, and core. The access layer is where devices like PCs and printers connect to the network. The distribution layer aggregates the data received from the access layer switches before it is transmitted to the core layer, which is responsible for high-speed data transfer and routing. This approach improves scalability and performance in larger networks. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

A network administrator needs to change where the outside DNS records are hosted. Which of the following records should the administrator change the registrar to accomplish this task?


A. NS


B. SOA


C. PTR


D. CNAME





A.
  NS

Explanation: To change where the outside DNS records are hosted, the network administrator needs to update the NS (Name Server) records at the domain registrar. NS records specify the authoritative name servers for a domain, directing where DNS queries should be sent.
NS (Name Server) Records: These records indicate the servers that are authoritative for a domain. Changing the NS records at the registrar points DNS resolution to the new hosting provider.
SOA (Start of Authority): Contains administrative information about the domain, including the primary name server.
PTR (Pointer) Records: Used for reverse DNS lookups, mapping IP addresses to domain names.
CNAME (Canonical Name) Records: Used to alias one domain name to another, not relevant for changing DNS hosting.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses DNS records, their purposes, and how to manage them.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on DNS management and the role of different DNS record types.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains DNS records and their configuration for domain management.

A network engineer receives a vendor alert regarding a vulnerability in a router CPU. Which of the following should the engineer do to resolve the issue?


A. Update the firmware.


B. Replace the system board.


C. Patch the OS.


D. Isolate the system.





A.
  Update the firmware.

Explanation:
Understanding the Vulnerability:

Vulnerabilities in the router CPU can be exploited to cause performance degradation, unauthorized access, or other security issues.

Firmware Update:

Firmware Role: The firmware is low-level software that controls the hardware of a device. Updating the firmware can address vulnerabilities by providing patches and enhancements from the manufacturer.
Procedure: Download the latest firmware from the vendor’s website, follow the manufacturer's instructions to apply the update, and verify that the update resolves the vulnerability.

Comparison with Other Options:

Replace the System Board: This is a costly and often unnecessary step if the issue can be resolved with a firmware update.
Patch the OS: Patching the OS is relevant for devices with a full operating system but not directly applicable to addressing a CPU vulnerability on a router.
Isolate the System: Temporarily isolating the system can mitigate immediate risk but does not resolve the underlying vulnerability.

Best Practice:

Regularly check for and apply firmware updates to ensure that network devices are protected against known vulnerabilities.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security and device management.

To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?


A. Public


B. Hybrid


C. SaaS


D. Private





B.
  Hybrid

Explanation: A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles.

A network administrator is deploying a new switch and wants to make sure that the default priority value was set for a spanning tree. Which of the following values would the network administrator expect to see?


A. 4096


B. 8192


C. 32768


D. 36684





C.
  32768

Explanation:
Understanding Spanning Tree Protocol (STP):

STP is used to prevent network loops in Ethernet networks by creating a spanning tree that selectively blocks some redundant paths.

Default Priority Value:

Bridge Priority: STP uses bridge priority to determine which switch becomes the root bridge. The default bridge priority value for most switches is 32768.
Priority Range: The bridge priority can be set in increments of 4096, ranging from 0 to 61440.

Configuration and Verification:

When deploying a new switch, the network administrator can verify the bridge priority using commands such as show spanning-tree to ensure it is set to the default value of 32768.

Comparison with Other Values:

4096 and 8192: Lower than the default priority, indicating these would be manually configured for higher preference.
36684: A non-standard value, likely a result of specific configuration changes.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on Spanning Tree Protocol and network configuration.

Which of the following disaster recovery metrics is used to describe the amount of data that is lost since the last backup?


A. MTTR


B. RTO


C. RPO


D. MTBF





C.
  RPO

Explanation:
Definition of RPO:

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.
For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours' worth of data in the event of a disruption.

Why RPO is Important:

RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss.

Comparison with Other Metrics:

MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.

How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:

Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.

References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.

A network administrator is in the process of installing 35 PoE security cameras. After the administrator installed and tested the new cables, the administrator installed the cameras. However, a small number of the cameras do not work. Which of the following is the most reason?


A. Incorrect wiring standard


B. Power budget exceeded


C. Signal attenuation


D. Wrong voltage





B.
  Power budget exceeded

Explanation:
When installing multiple Power over Ethernet (PoE) devices like security cameras, it is crucial to ensure that the total power requirement does not exceed the power budget of the PoE switch. Each PoE switch has a maximum power capacity, and exceeding this capacity can cause some devices to fail to receive power.
PoE Standards: PoE switches conform to standards such as IEEE 802.3af (PoE) and 802.3at (PoE+), each with specific power limits per port and total power capacity.
Power Calculation: Adding up the power requirements of all connected PoE devices can help determine if the total power budget of the switch is exceeded.
Symptoms: When the power budget is exceeded, some devices, typically those farthest from the switch or connected last, may not power up or function correctly.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers PoE standards and troubleshooting power issues.
Cisco Networking Academy: Discusses PoE technologies, power budgeting, and managing PoE devices.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Provides information on PoE setup, including power budget considerations.

A company's marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as www.comptia.org. Which of the following records should the administrator use?


A. SOA


B. MX


C. CNAME


D. NS





C.
  CNAME

Explanation:
A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to www.comptia.org . SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers.
[Reference:, The DNS section of the CompTIA Network+ materials describes the use of CNAME records for creating domain aliases., , ]


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