CSSLP Exam Questions

Total 348 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 16-Dec-2024

Topic 1: Volume A

Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula






A Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollar ($) that is assigned to a single event. The SLE can be calculated by the following formula: SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) can be calculated by multiplying the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) with the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency in which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. 

 

What component of the change management system is responsible for evaluating, testing, and documenting changes created to the project scope?


A.

Project Management Information System


B.

Integrated Change Control


C.

Configuration Management System


D.

Scope Verification





C.
  

Configuration Management System



Explanation: The change management system is comprised of several components that guide the change request through the process. When a change request is made that will affect the project scope. The Configuration Management System evaluates the change request and documents the features and functions of the change on the project scope.

The organization level is the Tier 1 and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. What are the various Tier 1 activities? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply


A.

The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out. 


B.

The level of risk tolerance.


C.

The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. 


D.

The RMF primarily operates at Tier 1.





A.
  

The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out. 



B.
  

The level of risk tolerance.



C.
  

The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. 



Explanation: The Organization Level is the Tier 1, and it addresses risks from an organizational perspective. It includes the following points: The techniques and methodologies an organization plans to employ, to evaluate information system-related security risks. During risk assessment, the methods and procedures the organization plans to use, to evaluate the significance of the risks identified. The types and extent of risk mitigation measures the organization plans to employ, to address identified risks. The level of risk tolerance. According to the environment of operation, how the organization plans to monitor risks on an ongoing basis, given the inevitable changes to organizational information system. The organization plans to use the degree and type of oversight, in order to ensure that the risk management strategy is being effectively carried out.Answer: D is incorrect. The RMF primarily operates at Tier 3.

Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?


A.

Data redundancy 


B.

Hardware redundancy


C.

Process redundancy


D.

Application redundancy





C.
  

Process redundancy



Explanation: Process redundancy permits software to run simultaneously on multiple geographically distributed locations, with voting on results. It prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data.

You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis? 


A.

A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.  


B.

A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances. 


C.

A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.


D.

 A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.





C.
  

A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible.



Explanation: Of all the choices only this answer is accurate. The PMBOK clearly states that the data must be accurate and unbiased to be credible. Answer: D is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about the qualitative risk analysis data. 

Which of the following rated systems of the Orange book has mandatory protection of the TCB? 


A.

A-rated 


B.

B-rated


C.

D-rated 


D.

C-rated





B.
  

B-rated



Explanation: A B-rated system of the orange book has mandatory protection of the trusted computing base (TCB). Trusted computing base (TCB) refers to hardware, software, controls, and processes that cause a computer system or network to be devoid of malicious software or hardware. Maintaining the trusted computing base (TCB) is essential for security policy to be implemented successfully.

Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?


A.

DoD 8910.1 


B.

DoD 7950.1-M 


C.

DoDD 8000.1 


D.

DoD 5200.22-M


E.

DoD 5200.1-R 





B.
  

DoD 7950.1-M 



Explanation: The various DoD directives are as follows: DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the 'Information Security Program Regulation'. DoD 5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the 'National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual'. DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the 'Defense Automation Resources Management Manual'. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the 'Defense Information Management (IM) Program'. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the 'Management and Control of Information Requirements'.

Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Code written in C/C++/assembly language


B.

Code listening on a globally accessible network interface 


C.

Code that changes frequently


D.

Anonymously accessible code 


E.

Code that runs by default


F.

Code that runs in elevated context





B.
  

Code listening on a globally accessible network interface 



D.
  

Anonymously accessible code 



E.
  

Code that runs by default



F.
  

Code that runs in elevated context



Explanation: Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines the following heuristics for determining code review in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews": Old code: Newer code provides better understanding of software security and has lesser number of vulnerabilities. Older code must be checked deeply. Code that runs by default: It must have high quality, and must be checked deeply than code that does not execute by default. Code that runs by default increases the application's attack surface. Code that runs in elevated context: It must have higher quality. Code that runs in elevated privileges must be checked deeply and increases the application's attack surface. Anonymously accessible code: It must be checked deeply than code that only authorized users and administrators can access, and it increases the application's attack surface. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface: It must be checked deeply for security vulnerabilities and increases the application's attack surface. Code written in C/C++/assembly language: It is prone to security vulnerabilities, for example, buffer overruns. Code with a history of security vulnerabilities: It includes additional vulnerabilities except concerted efforts that are required for removing them. Code that handles sensitive data: It must be checked deeply to ensure that data is protected from unintentional disclosure. Complex code: It includes undiscovered errors because it is more difficult to analyze complex code manually and programmatically. Code that changes frequently: It has more security vulnerabilities than code that does not change frequently. 

Which of the following secure coding principles and practices defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it?


A.

Make code forward and backward traceable 


B.

Review code during and after coding


C.

Use a consistent coding style


D.

Keep code simple and small 





C.
  

Use a consistent coding style



Explanation: Use a consistent coding style is one of the principles and practices that contribute to defensive coding. This principle defines the appearance of code listing so that a code reviewer and maintainer who have not written that code can easily understand it. For this purpose, all programmers of a team must follow the same guidelines. Answer: D is incorrect. Keep code simple and small defines that it is easy to verify the software security when a programmer uses small and simple code base. Answer: A is incorrect. Make code forward and backward traceable defines that traceability is necessary in order to validate requirements, prevent defects, and find and solve inconsistencies among all objects generated in the SDLC phases. Answer: B is incorrect. Review code during and after coding defines that code must be examined in order to identify coding errors in modules. 

Which of the following is a signature-based intrusion detection system (IDS)? 


A.

RealSecure 


B.

StealthWatch 


C.

Tripwire 


D.

Snort 





D.
  

Snort 



Explanation: Snort is a signature-based intrusion detection system. Snort is an open source network intrusion prevention and detection system that operates as a network sniffer. It logs activities of the network that is matched with the predefined signatures. Signatures can be designed for a wide range of traffic, including Internet Protocol (IP), Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), User Datagram Protocol (UDP), and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). The three main modes in which Snort can be configured are as follows: Sniffer mode: It reads the packets of the network and displays them in a continuous stream on the console. Packet logger mode: It logs the packets to the disk. Network intrusion detection mode: It is the most complex and configurable configuration, allowing Snort to analyze network traffic for matches against a user-defined rule set. Answer: B is incorrect. StealthWatch is a behavior-based intrusion detection system. Answer: A is incorrect. RealSecure is a network-based IDS that monitors TCP, UDP and ICMP traffic and is configured to look for attack patterns. Answer: C is incorrect. Tripwire is a file integrity checker for UNIX/Linux that can be used for host-based intrusion detection. 


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