Topic 1: Volume A
The IAM/CA makes certification accreditation recommendations to the DAA. The DAA issues accreditation determinations. Which of the following are the accreditation determinations issued by the DAA? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply
A.
IATT
B.
IATO
C.
DATO
D.
ATO
E.
ATT
IATT
IATO
DATO
ATO
Explanation: The DAA issues one of the following four accreditation determinations: Approval to Operate (ATO): It is an authorization of a DoD information system to process, store, or transmit information. Interim Approval to Operate (IATO): It is a temporary approval to operate based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Interim Approval to Test (IATT): It is a temporary approval to conduct system testing based on an assessment of the implementation status of the assigned IA Controls. Denial of Approval to Operate (DATO): It is a determination that a DoD information system cannot operate because of an inadequate IA design or failure to implement assigned IA Controls. Answer: E is incorrect. No such type of accreditation determination exists.
What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Develop software requirements.
B.
Implement change control procedures.
C.
Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D.
Create acquisition strategy.
Develop software requirements.
Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
Create acquisition strategy.
Explanation: The various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition process are as follows: Determine software product or service requirements. Identify associated risks. Develop software requirements. Create acquisition strategy. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan. Define development and use of SwA due diligence questionnaires. Answer: B is incorrect. This activity is performed in the monitoring and acceptance phase of the Software Assurance acquisition process.
Bill is the project manager of the JKH Project. He and the project team have identified a risk event in the project with a high probability of occurrence and the risk event has a high cost impact on the project. Bill discusses the risk event with Virginia, the primary project customer, and she decides that the requirements surrounding the risk event should be removed from the project. The removal of the requirements does affect the project scope, but it can release the project from the high risk exposure. What risk response has been enacted in this project?
A.
Mitigation
B.
Transference
C.
Acceptance
D.
Avoidance
Avoidance
Explanation: This is an example of the avoidance risk response. Because the project plan has been changed to avoid the risk event, so it is considered the avoidance risk response. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. Answer: C is incorrect. Acceptance is when the stakeholders acknowledge the risk event and they accept that the event could happen and could have an impact on the project. Acceptance is usually used for risk events that have low risk exposure or risk events in which the project has no control, such as a pending law or weather threats. Answer: A is incorrect. Mitigation is involved with the actions to reduce an included risk's probability and/or impact on the project's objectives. As the risk was removed from the project, this scenario describes avoidance, not mitigation. Answer: B is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is still within the project, but the ownership and management of the risk event is transferred to a third party - usually for a fee.
Which of the following actions does the Data Loss Prevention (DLP) technology take when an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
It creates an alert.
B.
It quarantines the file to a secure location.
C.
It reconstructs the session.
D.
It blocks the transmission of content.
It creates an alert.
It quarantines the file to a secure location.
It blocks the transmission of content.
Explanation: When an agent detects a policy violation for data of all states, the Data Loss prevention (DLP) technology takes one of the following actions: It creates an alert. It notifies an administrator of a violation. It quarantines the file to a secure location. It encrypts the file. It blocks the transmission of content. Answer: C is incorrect. Data Loss Prevention (DLP) reconstructs the session when data is in motion.
You work as a systems engineer for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following tools will you use to look outside your own organization to examine how others achieve their performance levels, and what processes they use to reach those levels?
A.
Benchmarking
B.
Six Sigma
C.
ISO 9001:2000
D.
SEI-CMM
Benchmarking
Explanation: Benchmarking is the tool used by system assessment process to provide a point of reference by which performance measurements can be reviewed with respect to other organizations. Benchmarking is also recognized as Best Practice Benchmarking or Process Benchmarking. It is a process used in management and mostly useful for strategic management. It is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality to another that is widely considered to be an industry standard benchmark or best practice. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to implement best practice with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Benchmarking might be a one-time event, although it is frequently treated as a continual process in which organizations continually seek out to challenge their practices. It allows organizations to develop plans on how to make improvements or adapt specific best practices, usually with the aim of increasing some aspect of performance. Answer: C is incorrect. The ISO 9001:2000 standard combines the three standards 9001, 9002, and 9003 into one, called 9001. Design and development procedures are required only if a company does in fact engage in the creation of new products. The 2000 version sought to make a radical change in thinking by actually placing the concept of process management front and center ("Process management" was the monitoring and optimizing of a company's tasks and activities, instead of just inspecting the final product). The ISO 9001:2000 version also demands involvement by upper executives, in order to integrate quality into the business system and avoid delegation of quality functions to junior administrators. Another goal is to improve effectiveness via process performance metrics numerical measurement of the effectiveness of tasks and activities. Expectations of continual process improvement and tracking customer satisfaction were made explicit. Answer: B is incorrect. Six Sigma is a business management strategy, initially implemented by Motorola. As of 2009 it enjoys widespread application in many sectors of industry, although its application is not without controversy. Six Sigma seeks to improve the quality of process outputs by identifying and removing the causes of defects and variability in manufacturing and business processes. It uses a set of quality management methods, including statistical methods, and creates a special infrastructure of people within the organization ("Black Belts", "Green Belts", etc.) who are experts in these methods. Each Six Sigma project carried out within an organization follows a defined sequence of steps and has quantified financial targets (cost reduction or profit increase). The often used Six Sigma symbol is as follows:
Answer: D is incorrect. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) was created by Software Engineering Institute (SEI). CMMI in software engineering and organizational development is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement. It can be used to guide process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization. CMMI can help integrate traditionally separate organizational functions, set process improvement goals and priorities, provide guidance for quality processes, and provide a point of reference for appraising current processes. CMMI is now the de facto standard for measuring the maturity of any process. Organizations can be assessed against the CMMI model using Standard CMMI Appraisal Method for Process Improvement (SCAMPI).
DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and medium availability?
A.
MAC III
B.
MAC IV
C.
MAC I
D.
MAC II
MAC II
Explanation: The various MAC levels are as follows: MAC I: It states that the systems have high availability and high integrity. MAC II: It states that the systems have high integrity and medium availability. MAC III: It states that the systems have basic integrity and availability.
In which of the following alternative processing sites is the backup facility maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility?
A.
Cold Site
B.
Hot Site
C.
Warm Site
D.
Mobile Site
Hot Site
Explanation: A hot site is a duplicate of the original site of the organization, with full computer systems as well as near-complete backups of user data. It provides the backup facility, which is maintained in a constant order, with a full complement of servers, workstations, and communication links ready to assume the primary operations responsibility. A hot site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. A hot site is located off site and provides the best protection. It is an exact replica of the current data center. In case a disaster struck to the data center, administrators just need to take the backup of recent data in hot site and the data center is back online in a very short time. It is very expensive to create and maintain the hot site. There are lots of third party companies that provide disaster recovery solutions by maintaining hot sites at their end. Answer: A is incorrect. A cold site is a backup site in case disaster has taken place in a data center. This is the least expensive disaster recovery solution, usually having only a single room with no equipment. All equipment is brought to the site after the disaster. It can be on site or off site. Answer: D is incorrect. Mobile sites are self-reliant, portable shells custom-fitted with definite telecommunications and IT equipment essential to meet system requirements. These are presented for lease through commercial vendors. Answer: C is incorrect. A warm site is, quite logically, a compromise between hot and cold sites. Warm sites will have hardware and connectivity already established, though on a smaller scale than the original production site or even a hot site. These sites will have backups on hand, but they may not be complete and may be between several days and a week old. An example would be backup tapes sent to the warm site by courier.
Which of the following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Editor
B.
Custodian
C.
Owner
D.
User
E.
Security auditor
Custodian
Owner
User
Security auditor
Explanation: The following are the common roles with regard to data in an information classification program: Owner Custodian User Security auditor The following are the responsibilities of the owner with regard to data in an information classification program: Determining what level of classification the information requires. Reviewing the classification assignments at regular time intervals and making changes as the business needs change. Delegating the responsibility of the data protection duties to the custodian. The following are the responsibilities of the custodian with regard to data in an information classification program: Running regular backups and routinely testing the validity of the backup data Performing data restoration from the backups when necessary Controlling access, adding and removing privileges for individual users The users must comply with the requirements laid out in policies and procedures. They must also exercise due care. A security auditor examines an organization's security procedures and mechanisms.
Which of the following testing methods verifies the interfaces between components against a software design?
A.
Regression testing
B.
Integration testing
C.
Black-box testing
D.
Unit testing
Integration testing
Explanation: Integration testing is a software testing that seeks to verify the interfaces between components against a software design. Software components may be integrated in an iterative way or all together ("big bang"). Normally the former is considered a better practice since it allows interface issues to be localized more quickly and fixed. Integration testing works to expose defects in the interfaces and interaction between the integrated components (modules). Progressively larger groups of tested software components corresponding to elements of the architectural design are integrated and tested until the software works as a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, or old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Answer: D is incorrect. Unit testing refers to tests that verify the functionality of a specific section of code, usually at the function level. In an object-oriented environment, this is usually at the class level, and the minimal unit tests include the constructors and destructors. These types of tests are usually written by developers as they work on code (white-box style), to ensure that the specific function is working as expected. One function might have multiple tests, to catch corner cases or other branches in the code. Unit testing alone cannot verify the functionality of a piece of software, but rather is used to assure that the building blocks the software uses work independently of each other. Answer: C is incorrect. The black-box testing uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and design to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional. The test designer selects valid and invalid inputs and determines the correct output. There is no knowledge of the test object's internal structure. This method of test design is applicable to all levels of software testing: unit, integration, functional testing, system and acceptance. The higher the level, and hence the bigger and more complex the box, the more one is forced to use black box testing to simplify. While this method can uncover unimplemented parts of the specification, one cannot be sure that all existent paths are tested.
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A.
Qualitative risk analysis
B.
Historical information
C.
Rolling wave planning
D.
Quantitative analysis
Qualitative risk analysis
Explanation: Qualitative risk analysis is the best answer as it is a fast and low-cost approach to analyze the risk impact and its effect. It can promote certain risks onto risk response planning. Qualitative Risk Analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative Risk Analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or Risk Response Plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a concern to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. The qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process are: Organizational process assets Project Scope Statement Risk Management Plan Risk Register Answer: B is incorrect. Historical information can be helpful in the qualitative risk analysis, but it is not the best answer for the question as historical information is not always available (consider new projects). Answer: D is incorrect. Quantitative risk analysis is in-depth and often requires a schedule and budget for the analysis. Answer: C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is not a valid answer for risk analysis processes.
Page 4 out of 35 Pages |
Previous |