Topic 1: Volume A
Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States. A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A.
Espionage law
B.
Trademark law
C.
Cyber law
D.
Copyright law
Trademark law
Explanation: The Trademark law is a piece of legislation that contains the federal statutes of trademark law in the United States. The Act prohibits a number of activities, including trademark infringement, trademark dilution, and false advertising. Trademarks were traditionally protected in the United States only under State common law, growing out of the tort of unfair competition. Trademark law in the United States is almost entirely enforced through private lawsuits. The exception is in the case of criminal counterfeiting of goods. Otherwise, the responsibility is entirely on the mark owner to file suit in either state or federal civil court in order to restrict an infringing use. Failure to "police" a mark by stopping infringing uses can result in the loss of protection. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright law of the United States governs the legally enforceable rights of creative and artistic works under the laws of the United States. Copyright law in the United States is part of federal law, and is authorized by the U.S. Constitution. The power to enact copyright law is granted in Article I, Section 8, Clause 8, also known as the Copyright Clause. This clause forms the basis for U.S. copyright law ("Science", "Authors", "Writings") and patent law ("useful Arts", "Inventors", "Discoveries"), and includes the limited terms (or durations) allowed for copyrights and patents ("limited Times"), as well as the items they may protect. In the U.S., registrations of claims of copyright, recordation of copyright transfers, and other administrative aspects of copyright are the responsibility of the United States Copyright Office, a part of the Library of Congress. Answer: A is incorrect. The Espionage Act of 1917 was a United States federal law passed shortly after entering World War I, on June 15, 1917, which made it a crime for a person: To convey information with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the armed forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies. This was punishable by death or by imprisonment for not more than 30 years. To convey false reports or false statements with intent to interfere with the operation or success of the military or naval forces of the United States or to promote the success of its enemies and whoever when the United States is at war, to cause or attempt to cause insubordination, disloyalty, mutiny, refusal of duty, in the military or naval forces of the United States, or to willfully obstruct the recruiting or enlistment service of the United States. Answer: C is incorrect. Cyber law is a very wide term, which wraps up the legal issue related to the use of communicative, transactional and distributive aspect of networked information device and technologies. It is commonly known as INTERNET LAW. These Laws are important to apply as Internet does not tend to make any geographical and jurisdictional boundaries clear; this is the reason why Cyber law is not very efficient. A single transaction may involve the laws of at least three jurisdictions, which are as follows: 1.The laws of the state/nation in which the user resides 2.The laws of the state/nation that apply where the server hosting the transaction is located 3.The laws of the state/nation, which apply to the person or business with whom the transaction takes place
Which of the following governance bodies directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program?
A.
Chief Information Security Officer
B.
Information Security Steering Committee
C.
Business Unit Manager
D.
Senior Management
Chief Information Security Officer
Explanation: Chief Information Security Officer directs and coordinates implementations of the information security program. The governance roles and responsibilities are mentioned below in the table:
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply
A.
VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B.
Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C.
DC Security Design & Configuration
D.
EC Enclave and Computing Environment
VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
DC Security Design & Configuration
EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Explanation: According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information security standards: DC Security Design & Configuration IA Identification and Authentication EC Enclave and Computing Environment EB Enclave Boundary Defense PE Physical and Environmental PR Personnel CO Continuity VI Vulnerability and Incident Management Answer: B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International information security standard.
Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities except for which one?
A.
Configuration Identification
B.
Configuration Verification and Auditing
C.
Configuration Status Accounting
D.
Configuration Item Costing
Configuration Item Costing
Explanation: Configuration item cost is not a valid activity for configuration management. Cost changes are managed by the cost change control system; configuration management is concerned with changes to the features and functions of the project deliverables.
Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?
A.
Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF)
B.
Service-oriented architecture (SOA)
C.
Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)
D.
Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)
Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF)
Explanation: The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) has been proposed by author Michael Bell as a service-oriented modeling language for software development that employs disciplines and a holistic language to provide strategic solutions to enterprise problems. The service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) is a service-oriented development life cycle methodology. It offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling. The service-oriented modeling framework illustrates the major elements that identify the "what to do" aspects of a service development scheme. Answer: B is incorrect. The service-oriented architecture (SOA) is a flexible set of design principles used during the phases of systems development and integration. Answer: D is incorrect. The service- oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) includes an analysis and design method that extends traditional object-oriented and component-based analysis and design methods to include concerns relevant to and supporting SOA. Answer: C is incorrect. SABSA (Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture) is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management. It is a model and a methodology for developing risk-driven enterprise information security architectures and for delivering security infrastructure solutions that support critical business initiatives.
Which of the following attacks causes software to fail and prevents the intended users from accessing software?
A.
Enabling attack
B.
Reconnaissance attack
C.
Sabotage attack
D.
Disclosure attack
Sabotage attack
Explanation: A sabotage attack is an attack that causes software to fail. It also prevents the intended users from accessing software. A sabotage attack is referred to as a denial of service (DoS) or compromise of availability. Answer: B is incorrect. The reconnaissance attack enables an attacker to collect information about software and operating environment. Answer: D is incorrect. The disclosure attack exposes the revealed data to an attacker. Answer: A is incorrect. The enabling attack delivers an easy path for other attacks.
In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A.
Parallel test
B.
Simulation test
C.
Full-interruption test
D.
Checklist test
Checklist test
Explanation: A checklist test is a test in which the disaster recovery checklists are distributed to the members of the disaster recovery team. All members are asked to review the assigned checklist. The checklist test is a simple test and it is easy to conduct this test. It allows to accomplish the following three goals: It ensures that the employees are aware of their responsibilities and they have the refreshed knowledge. It provides an individual with an opportunity to review the checklists for obsolete information and update any items that require modification during the changes in the organization. It ensures that the assigned members of disaster recovery team are still working for the organization. Answer: B is incorrect. A simulation test is a method used to test the disaster recovery plans. It operates just like a structured walk- through test. In the simulation test, the members of a disaster recovery team present with a disaster scenario and then, discuss on appropriate responses. These suggested responses are measured and some of them are taken by the team. The range of the simulation test should be defined carefully for avoiding excessive disruption of normal business activities. Answer: A is incorrect. A parallel test includes the next level in the testing procedure, and relocates the employees to an alternate recovery site and implements site activation procedures. These employees present with their disaster recovery responsibilities as they would for an actual disaster. The disaster recovery sites have full responsibilities to conduct the day-to-day organization's business. Answer: C is incorrect. A full-interruption test includes the operations that shut down at the primary site and are shifted to the recovery site according to the disaster recovery plan. It operates just like a parallel test. The full-interruption test is very expensive and difficult to arrange. Sometimes, it causes a major disruption of operations if the test fails.
Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A.
OMB
B.
NIST
C.
NSA/CSS
D.
DCAA
OMB
Explanation: The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is a Cabinet-level office, and is the largest office within the Executive Office of the President (EOP) of the United States. The current OMB Director is Peter Orszag and was appointed by President Barack Obama. The OMB's predominant mission is to assist the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies. In helping to formulate the President's spending plans, the OMB evaluates the effectiveness of agency programs, policies, and procedures, assesses competing funding demands among agencies, and sets funding priorities. The OMB ensures that agency reports, rules, testimony, and proposed legislation are consistent with the President's Budget and with Administration policies. Answer: D is incorrect. The DCAA has the aim to monitor contractor costs and perform contractor audits. Answer: C is incorrect. The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-logic intelligence agency of the United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense. NSA is responsible for the collection and analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis. NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems from similar agencies elsewhere, which involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed by the Director of National Intelligence. The Central Security Service is a co- located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and co-operation between NSA and U.S. military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA's work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not perform field or human intelligence activities. Answer: B is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between 1901 and 1988 as the National Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial competitiveness by advancing measurement science, standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.
A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management that dictates what role security plays within the organization. Which of the following are required to be addressed in a well designed policy? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply
A.
What is being secured?
B.
Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk?
C.
Who is expected to exploit the vulnerability?
D.
Who is expected to comply with the policy?
What is being secured?
Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk?
Who is expected to comply with the policy?
Explanation: A security policy is an overall general statement produced by senior management (or a selected policy board or committee) that dictates what role security plays within the organization. A well designed policy addresses the following: What is being secured? - Typically an asset. Who is expected to comply with the policy? - Typically employees. Where is the vulnerability, threat, or risk? - Typically an issue of integrity or responsibility.
Which of the following are the types of access controls? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A.
Physical
B.
Technical
C.
Administrative
D.
Automatic
Physical
Technical
Administrative
Explanation: Security guards, locks on the gates, and alarms come under physical access control. Policies and procedures implemented by an organization come under administrative access control. IDS systems, encryption, network segmentation, and antivirus controls come under technical access control. Answer: D is incorrect. There is no such type of access control as automatic control.
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