Topic 2: Volume B
What are the subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the DIACAP process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Conduct validation activities.
B.
Execute and update IA implementation plan.
C.
Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
D.
Conduct activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects.
Conduct validation activities.
Execute and update IA implementation plan.
Combine validation results in DIACAP scorecard.
Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. The subordinate tasks of the Implement and Validate Assigned IA Control phase in the DIACAP process are as follows: Execute and update IA implementation plan. Conduct validation activities. Combine validation results in the DIACAP scorecard. Answer: D is incorrect. The activities related to the disposition of the system data and objects are conducted in the fifth phase of the DIACAP process. The fifth phase of the DIACAP process is known as Decommission System.
The Software Configuration Management (SCM) process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. What are the procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is implemented? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A.
Configuration status accounting
B.
Configuration change control
C.
Configuration identification
D.
Configuration audits
E.
Configuration implementation
F.
Configuration deployment
Configuration status accounting
Configuration change control
Configuration identification
Configuration audits
Explanation: The SCM process defines the need to trace changes, and the ability to verify that the final delivered software has all of the planned enhancements that are supposed to be included in the release. It identifies four procedures that must be defined for each software project to ensure that a sound SCM process is implemented. They are as follows: 1.Configuration identification: Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. 2.Configuration change control: Configuration change control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. 3.Configuration status accounting: Configuration status accounting is the ability to record and report on the configuration baselines associated with each configuration item at any moment of time. 4.Configuration audits: Configuration audits are broken into functional and physical configuration audits. They occur either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A functional configuration audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved, while a physical configuration audit ensures that a configuration item is installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed design documentation.
In which of the following deployment models of cloud is the cloud infrastructure operated exclusively for an organization?
A.
Public cloud
B.
Community cloud
C.
Private cloud
D.
Hybrid cloud
Private cloud
Explanation: In private cloud, the cloud infrastructure is operated exclusively for an organization. The private cloud infrastructure is administered by the organization or a third party, and exists on premise and off premise.
The Data and Analysis Center for Software (DACS) specifies three general principles for software assurance which work as a framework in order to categorize various secure design principles. Which of the following principles and practices does the General Principle 1 include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two
A.
Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles
B.
Assume environment data is not trustworthy
C.
Simplify the design
D.
Principle of least privilege
Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles
Principle of least privilege
Explanation: General Principle 1- Minimize the number of high-consequence targets includes the following principles and practices: Principle of least privilege Principle of separation of privileges, duties, and roles Principle of separation of domains Answer: B is incorrect. Assume environment data is not trustworthy principle is included in the General Principle 2. Answer: C is incorrect. Simplify the design principle is included in the General Principle 3.
You work as a security manager for BlueWell Inc. You are going through the NIST SP 800- 37 C&A methodology, which is based on four well defined phases. In which of the following phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A methodology does the security categorization occur?
A.
Security Accreditation
B.
Security Certification
C.
Continuous Monitoring
D.
Initiation
Initiation
Explanation: The various phases of NIST SP 800-37 C&A are as follows: Phase 1: Initiation- This phase includes preparation, notification and resource identification. It performs the security plan analysis, update, and acceptance. Phase 2: Security Certification- The Security certification phase evaluates the controls and documentation. Phase 3: Security Accreditation- The security accreditation phase examines the residual risk for acceptability, and prepares the final security accreditation package. Phase 4: Continuous Monitoring-This phase monitors the configuration management and control, ongoing security control verification, and status reporting and documentation.
Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?
A.
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)
B.
Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
C.
Safeguard
D.
Exposure Factor (EF)
Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Explanation: The Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) is a number that represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur. It is calculated based upon the probability of the event occurring and the number of employees that could make that event occur. Answer: D is incorrect. The Exposure Factor (EF) represents the % of assets loss caused by a threat. The EF is required to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE). Answer: A is incorrect. The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is the value in dollars that is assigned to a single event. SLE = Asset Value ($) X Exposure Factor (EF) Answer: C is incorrect. Safeguard acts as a countermeasure for reducing the risk associated with a specific threat or a group of threats
In which of the following phases of the DITSCAP process does Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occur?
A.
Phase 2
B.
Phase 4
C.
Phase 3
D.
Phase 1
Phase 3
Explanation: Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E) occurs in Phase 3 of the DITSCAP C&A process. Answer: D is incorrect. The Phase 1 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Definition Phase. The goal of this phase is to define the C&A level of effort, identify the main C&A roles and responsibilities, and create an agreement on the method for implementing the security requirements. The Phase 1 starts with the input of the mission need. This phase comprises three process activities: Document mission need Registration Negotiation Answer: A is incorrect. The Phase 2 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Verification. The goal of this phase is to obtain a fully integrated system for certification testing and accreditation. This phase takes place between the signing of the initial version of the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system. This phase verifies security requirements during system development. The process activities of this phase are as follows: Configuring refinement of the SSAA System development Certification analysis Assessment of the Analysis Results Answer: B is incorrect. The Phase 4 of DITSCAP C&A is known as Post Accreditation. This phase starts after the system has been accredited in the Phase 3. The goal of this phase is to continue to operate and manage the system and to ensure that it will maintain an acceptable level of residual risk. The process activities of this phase are as follows: System operations Security operations Maintenance of the SSAA Change management Compliance validation
Which of the following sections come under the ISO/IEC 27002 standard?
A.
Security policy
B.
Asset management
C.
Financial assessment
D.
Risk assessment
Security policy
Asset management
Risk assessment
Explanation: ISO/IEC 27002 is an information security standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and by the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) as ISO/IEC 17799:2005. This standard contains the following twelve main sections: 1.Risk assessment: It refers to assessment of risk. 2.Security policy: It deals with the security management. 3.Organization of information security: It deals with governance of information security. 4.Asset management: It refers to inventory and classification of information assets. 5.Human resources security: It deals with security aspects for employees joining, moving and leaving an organization. 6.Physical and environmental security: It is related to protection of the computer facilities. 7.Communications and operations management: It is the management of technical security controls in systems and networks. 8.Access control: It deals with the restriction of access rights to networks, systems, applications, functions and data. 9.Information systems acquisition, development and maintenance: It refers to build security into applications. 10.Information security incident management: It refers to anticipate and respond appropriately to information security breaches. 11.Business continuity management: It deals with protecting, maintaining and recovering business-critical processes and systems. 12.Compliance: It is used for ensuring conformance with information security policies, standards, laws and regulations. Answer: C is incorrect. Financial assessment does not come under the ISO/IEC 27002 standard.
Which of the following vulnerabilities occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions?
A.
Insecure cryptographic storage
B.
Malicious file execution
C.
Insecure communication
D.
Injection flaw
Malicious file execution
Explanation: Malicious file execution is a vulnerability that occurs when an application directly uses or concatenates potentially hostile input with data file or stream functions. This leads to arbitrary remote and hostile data being included, processed, and invoked by the Web server. Malicious file execution can be prevented by using an indirect object reference map, input validation, or explicit taint checking mechanism. Answer: D is incorrect. Injection flaw occurs when data is sent to an interpreter as a part of command or query. Answer: A is incorrect. Insecure cryptographic storage occurs when applications have failed to encrypt data. Answer: C is incorrect. Insecure communication occurs when applications have failed to encrypt network traffic.
Which of the following provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application?
A.
Watermarking
B.
Code obfuscation
C.
Encryption wrapper
D.
ESAPI
ESAPI
Explanation: ESAPI (Enterprise Security API) is a group of classes that encapsulate the key security operations, needed by most of the applications. It is a free, open source, Web application security control library. ESAPI provides an easy way to programmers for writing lower-risk applications and retrofitting security into an existing application. It offers a solid foundation for new development. Answer: C is incorrect. An encryption wrapper is a device that encrypts and decrypts the critical or all software codes at runtime. Answer: B is incorrect. Code obfuscation transforms the code so that it is less intelligible for a person. Answer: A is incorrect. Watermarking is the irreversible process of embedding information into a digital media. The purpose of digital watermarks is to provide copyright protection for intellectual property that is in digital form.
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