CSSLP Exam Questions

Total 348 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 27-Dec-2024

Topic 1: Volume A

In which of the following processes are experienced personnel and software tools used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure, or connectivity issues? 


A.

Risk Management


B.

Exception management


C.

Configuration Management 


D.

Change Management 





B.
  

Exception management



Explanation:  Exception management is a process in which experienced personnel and software tools are used to investigate, resolve, and handle process deviation, malformed data, infrastructure or connectivity issues. It increases the efficiency of business processes and contributes in the progress of business. Answer: C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process. Answer: A is incorrect. Risk Management is used to identify, assess, and control risks. It includes analyzing the value of assets to the business, identifying threats to those assets, and evaluating how vulnerable each asset is to those threats. Risk Management is part of Service Design and the owner of the Risk Management is the Risk Manager. Risks are addressed within several processes in ITIL V3; however, there is no dedicated Risk Management process. ITIL V3 calls for "coordinated risk assessment exercises", so at IT Process Maps we decided to assign clear responsibilities for managing risks. Answer: D is incorrect. Change Management is used to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient handling of all changes. A change is "an event that results in a new status of one or more configuration items (CI's)" approved by management, cost effective, enhances business process changes (fixes) - with a minimum risk to IT infrastructure. The main aims of Change Management are as follows: Minimal disruption of services Reduction in back-out activities Economic utilization of resources involved in the change 

Which of the following is a variant with regard to Configuration Management? 


A.

A CI that has the same name as another CI but shares no relationship. 


B.

A CI that particularly refers to a software version. 


C.

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner. 


D.

A CI that particularly refers to a hardware specification.





C.
  

A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner. 



Explanation: A CI that has the same essential functionality as another CI but a bit different in some small manner, and therefore, might be required to be analyzed along with its generic group. A Configuration item (CI) is an IT asset or a combination of IT assets that may depend and have relationships with other IT processes. A CI will have attributes which may be hierarchical and relationships that will be assigned by the configuration manager in the CM database. The Configuration Item (CI) attributes are as follows: 1.Technical: It is data that describes the CI's capabilities which include software version and model numbers, hardware and manufacturer specifications, and other technical details like networking speeds, and data storage size. Keyboards, mice and cables are considered consumables. 2.Ownership: It is part of financial asset management, ownership attributes, warranty, location, and responsible person for the CI. 3.Relationship: It is the relationship among hardware items, software, and users. Answer: B, D, and A are incorrect. These are incorrect definitions of a variant with regard to Configuration Management. 

Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?


A.

Data owner


B.

Chief Risk Officer


C.

Chief Information Officer 


D.

Designated Approving Authority





D.
  

Designated Approving Authority



Explanation: Designated Approving Authority (DAA) is also known as the accreditor. Answer: A is incorrect. The data owner (information owner) is usually a member of management, in charge of a specific business unit, and is ultimately responsible for the protection and use of a specific subset of information. Answer: B is incorrect. A Chief Risk Officer (CRO) is also known as Chief Risk Management Officer (CRMO). The Chief Risk Officer or Chief Risk Management Officer of a corporation is the executive accountable for enabling the efficient and effective governance of significant risks, and related opportunities, to a business and its various segments. Risks are commonly categorized as strategic, reputational, operational, financial, or compliance-related. CRO's are accountable to the Executive Committee and The Board for enabling the business to balance risk and reward. In more complex organizations, they are generally responsible for coordinating the organization's Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) approach. Answer: C is incorrect. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title commonly given to the most senior executive in an enterprise responsible for the information technology and computer systems that support enterprise goals. The CIO plays the role of a leader and reports to the chief executive officer, chief operations officer, or chief financial officer. In military organizations, they report to the commanding officer. 

Which of the following is designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and disabling of computer systems through the Internet? 


A.

DAS 


B.

IPsec 


C.

IDS 


D.

ACL 





C.
  

IDS 



Explanation: An Intrusion detection system (IDS) is software and/or hardware designed to detect unwanted attempts at accessing, manipulating, and/or disabling of computer systems, mainly through a network, such as the Internet. These attempts may take the form of attacks, as examples, by crackers, malware and/or disgruntled employees. An IDS cannot directly detect attacks within properly encrypted traffic. An intrusion detection system is used to detect several types of malicious behaviors that can compromise the security and trust of a computer system. This includes network attacks against vulnerable services, data driven attacks on applications, host based attacks such as privilege escalation, unauthorized logins and access to sensitive files, and malware (viruses, trojan horses, and worms). Answer: D is incorrect. Access Control List (ACL) is the most commonly used object in Cisco IOS. It filters packets or network traffic by controlling whether routed packets are forwarded or blocked at the router's interfaces. According to the criteria specified within the access lists, router determines whether the packets to be forwarded or dropped. Access control list criteria could be the source or destination address of the traffic or other information. The types of Cisco ACLs are Standard IP, Extended IP, IPX, Appletalk, etc. Answer: B is incorrect. Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a method of securing data. It secures traffic by using encryption and digital signing. It enhances the security of data as if an IPSec packet is captured, its contents cannot be read. IPSec also provides sender verification that ensures the certainty of the datagram's origin to the receiver. Answer: A is incorrect. Direct-attached storage (DAS) is a digital storage system that is directly attached to a server or workstation, without using a storage network.

You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You with your team are using a method or a (technical) process that conceives the risks even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. One of your team member wants to know that what is a residual risk. What will you reply to your team member?


A.

It is a risk that remains because no risk response is taken.


B.

It is a risk that can not be addressed by a risk response.


C.

It is a risk that will remain no matter what type of risk response is offered.


D.

It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken. 





D.
  

It is a risk that remains after planned risk responses are taken. 



Explanation: Residual risks are generally smaller risks that remain in the project after larger risks have been addressed. The residual risk is the risk or danger of an action or an event, a method or a (technical) process that still conceives these dangers even if all theoretically possible safety measures would be applied. The formula to calculate residual risk is (inherent risk) x (control risk) where inherent risk is (threats vulnerability). Answer: B is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks. Answer: A is incorrect. This is not a valid statement about residual risks.

Which of the following are examples of the application programming interface (API)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.


A.

HTML 


B.

PHP 


C.

.NET


D.

Perl 





B.
  

PHP 



C.
  

.NET



D.
  

Perl 



Explanation: Perl, .NET, and PHP are examples of the application programming interface (API). API is a set of routines, protocols, and tools that users can use to work with a component, application, or operating system. It consists of one or more DLLs that provide specific functionality. API helps in reducing the development time of applications by reducing application code. Most operating environments, such as MS-Windows, provide an API so that programmers can write applications consistent with the operating environment. Answer: A is incorrect. HTML stands for Hypertext Markup Language. It is a set of markup symbols or codes used to create Web pages and define formatting specifications. The markup tells the Web browser how to display the content of the Web page. 

The DoD 8500 policy series represents the Department's information assurance strategy. Which of the following objectives are defined by the DoD 8500 series? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

Defending systems


B.

Providing IA Certification and Accreditation


C.

Providing command and control and situational awareness


D.

Protecting information





A.
  

Defending systems



C.
  

Providing command and control and situational awareness



D.
  

Protecting information



Explanation: The various objectives of the DoD 8500 series are as follows: Protecting information Defending systems Providing command and control and situational awareness Making sure that the information assurance is integrated into processes Increasing security awareness throughout the DoD's workforce

Which of the following statements about the authentication concept of information security management is true? 


A.

It establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are.


B.

It ensures the reliable and timely access to resources.


C.

It determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.


D.

It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes





A.
  

It establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are.



Explanation: The concept of authentication establishes the users' identity and ensures that the users are who they say they are. Answer: B is incorrect. The concept of availability ensures the reliable and timely access to data or resources. Answer: D is incorrect. The concept of integrity ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes. Answer: C is incorrect. The concept of accountability determines the actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system, and identifies that particular individual.

Which of the following terms ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data?


A.

Non-repudiation 


B.

Integrity 


C.

Authentication 


D.

Confidentiality 





B.
  

Integrity 



Explanation: Integrity ensures that no intentional or unintentional unauthorized modification is made to data. Answer: D is incorrect. Confidentiality refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access. Administrators can provide confidentiality by encrypting data. Answer: A is incorrect. Non-repudiation is a mechanism to prove that the sender really sent this message. Answer: C is incorrect. Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a person or network host. 

DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. What phases are identified by DIACAP? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.


A.

System Definition 


B.

Validation 


C.

Identification 


D.

Accreditation 


E.

Verification 


F.

Re-Accreditation





A.
  

System Definition 



B.
  

Validation 



E.
  

Verification 



F.
  

Re-Accreditation



Explanation: The Department of Defense Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) is a process defined by the United States Department of Defense (DoD) for managing risk. DIACAP replaced the former process, known as DITSCAP (Department of Defense Information Technology Security Certification and Accreditation Process), in 2006. DoD Instruction (DoDI) 8510.01 establishes a standard DoD-wide process with a set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit an Automated Information System (AIS) that will maintain the Information Assurance (IA) posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII) throughout the system's life cycle. DIACAP applies to the acquisition, operation, and sustainment of any DoD system that collects, stores, transmits, or processes unclassified or classified information since December 1997. It identifies four phases: 1.System Definition 2.Verification 3.Validation 4.Re-Accreditation 


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