Which two statements are false about backup to ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA)?

A.

ZFSSA may connect directly to the Exadata 100Gb RoCE network switches.

B.

Top of Rack (ToR) switches are managed as part of the hardware stack and software levels are upgraded during the patching process.

C.

When backing up multi-rack systems, sharing Exadata X9M switches is recommended.

D.

ZFS Snapshots can provide rapid cloning of development and test environment.

Your customer needs to ensure that their data is available on the Exadata machine during updates. The customer wants to be able to update one server at a time but still be protected against single-node server failure. What ASM redundancy level should they use?

A.

Normal

B.

Sparse

C.

High

D.

External

E.

Extended

How do ASM failure groups provide redundancy?

A.

Failure groups are created for each grid disk to ensure mirror copies are written to the same storage server for faster recovery after a physical disk failure.

B.

Failure groups contain all ASM disks in a single storage server preventing mirror copies being written to the same storage server.

C.

They ensure that the ASM Flex instances are enabled on a maximum of two database servers or VMs per cluster.

D.

Extended Redundancy mirrors data across data centers providing the highest levels of data protection.

For which four component failures on an X9M Database Machine does Auto Service Request (ASR) raise service requests?

A.

RoCE network interface cards in the storage servers

B.

fans in the storage servers

C.

Cisco RDMA over Converged Ethernet (RoCE) switches

D.

RoCE network interface cards in the database servers

E.

power distribution units

F.

Cisco management switch

G.

power supplies in the database servers

Which statement is true about the Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator?

A.

Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator tracks changes to Persistent Memory Data Accelerator to ensure duplicate blocks are not written to Flash.

B.

Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator helps to further reduce redo log write latency by using Persistent Memory and Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA).

C.

Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator copies redo log data from disk for faster redo apply on Data Guard Standby Databases.

D.

Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator contains logging information from all tiers of the software stack for rapid triage and diagnostics.

E.

Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator reduces redo log write latency by using Persistent Memory and RDMA before flushing to Flash then disk.

Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?

A.

Write-back flash cache is on by default for High Capacity Storage Servers in High Redundancy configurations.

B.

Write-back Flash Cache cannot be used on Extreme Flash Storage Servers.

C.

When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, DBCLI should be used to inactivate the grid disks on all cells first.

D.

Before write-back flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.

E.

When enabling write-back flash cache in a non-rolling manner, you need to drop the Persistent Memory Commit Accelerator (PMEMLog) first.

Which two of the following network connection types can be deployed on the client network ports of an Exadata X9M-2 Database Server?

A.

2x 25Gb ports on eth1 and eth2 using SFP28 transceivers and OM4 fiber cable for backup network, and 2x 25Gb ports on eth5 and eth6 using SFP28 transceivers and OM4 fiber cable for client network

B.

2x 25Gb ports on eth1 and eth2 using SFP28 transceivers and OM4 fibre cable for client network, and 2x 10Gb ports on eth9 and eth10 using RJ45 cat6 cable for backup network

C.

2x 10Gb ports on eth1 and eth2 using FU45 cat6 cable for client network, and 2x 25Gb ports on eth11 and eth12 using SFP28 transceivers and OM4 fiber cable for backup network

D.

2x 25Gb ports on eth1 and eth2 using SFP28 transceivers and OM4 fiber cable for backup network, and 2x 10Gb ports on eth3 and eth4 using RJ45 cat6 cable for client network

Which are two correct statements for managing virtual deployment using Oracle Exadata Deployment Assistant (OEDA)?

A.

OEDA allows customers to have both bare metal (BM) and virtual machine (VM) in an Exadata X9M Quarter Rack.

B.

There is no limit on the number of VMs in an Exadata rack as long as the Exadata rack has adequate resources.

C.

OEDA deployment steps include calibrate cells, create cell disks, and resecure machine.

D.

OEDA sets up key-based authentication for the root user by using the setuprootssh.shutility included with OEDA.

Which two quarantine types can disable Smart Scan for multiple databases that offload SQL statements to a cell on an Exadata Database Machine?

A.

SQL Plan Quarantine

B.

Manually created Quarantine

C.

Database Quarantine

D.

Disk Region Quarantine

E.

Cell Offload Quarantine

You want to monitor how a large production table is accessed. Especially, you are interested to see how the access on that particular table leverages the benefits of the Exadata Platform. Which two actions are NOT appropriate for that purpose?

A.

YOU query VSSYSTEM_EVENTS and filter for the event 'cell physical IO interconnect bytes returned by smart scan', associated to your table.

B.

You query v$segment_statistics and filter for the Object ID of your table from dba_objects and the the column STATISTIC_NAME='optimized physical reads'.

C.

You query v$SYSTAT and filter for the statistic 'cell smart table scan', associated to your table.

D.

You run the CellCli-command list activerequest , filtering for the attributes ioReason and objectNumber, that you specify as 'Smart Scan' and the Object ID of your table from DBA_OBJECTS.